MCQs : Based on Computer Courses

MCQs Based on Basic Computer Course

Here are 50 multiple choice questions (MCQs) based on a basic computer course. These questions cover topics such as computer fundamentals, hardware, software, operating systems, Microsoft Office, internet basics, and general computing concepts.

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Basic Computer Course – Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. What does CPU stand for?
A) Central Processing Unit
B) Computer Personal Unit
C) Central Peripheral Unit
D) Control Processing Unit
Answer: A

2. Which of the following is an input device?
A) Monitor
B) Printer
C) Keyboard
D) Speaker
Answer: C

3. The brain of a computer is the:
A) RAM
B) Motherboard
C) Hard Drive
D) CPU
Answer: D

4. Which of these is not an operating system?
A) Windows
B) Linux
C) Google Chrome
D) macOS
Answer: C

5. What does RAM stand for?
A) Read Access Memory
B) Random Access Memory
C) Ready Access Memory
D) Run Active Memory
Answer: B

6. Which storage device has the largest capacity?
A) Floppy Disk
B) CD
C) USB Flash Drive
D) Hard Disk Drive
Answer: D

7. What type of software is Microsoft Word?
A) System software
B) Application software
C) Operating system
D) Utility software
Answer: B

8. Which key is used to delete characters to the left of the cursor?
A) Delete
B) Enter
C) Space
D) Backspace
Answer: D

9. What does GUI stand for?
A) General User Interface
B) Graphical User Interface
C) Global User Internet
D) Graphical Uniform Input
Answer: B

10. What is the full form of WWW?
A) World Web Window
B) World Wide Web
C) Web World Wide
D) Wide World Web
Answer: B

11. Which of these is not a web browser?
A) Mozilla Firefox
B) Google Chrome
C) Microsoft Excel
D) Safari
Answer: C

12. In a computer, what is a file?
A) A document
B) A folder
C) A collection of data or information
D) A hardware component
Answer: C

13. What does HTTP stand for?
A) Hypertext Transfer Protocol
B) Hyperlink Transfer Text Program
C) High Text Transfer Process
D) None of the above
Answer: A

14. Which one is a search engine?
A) Windows
B) Bing
C) Excel
D) Word
Answer: B

15. What does IP stand for in IP address?
A) Internet Provider
B) Internet Protocol
C) Internal Process
D) Internet Port
Answer: B

16. What kind of device is a mouse?
A) Input
B) Output
C) Storage
D) Processing
Answer: A

17. Which of the following is used to store data permanently?
A) RAM
B) ROM
C) Hard Disk
D) Cache
Answer: C

18. What is software?
A) The physical parts of a computer
B) The intangible components
C) Any device used to enter data
D) A hardware program
Answer: B

19. Which program is used to create spreadsheets?
A) MS Word
B) MS Excel
C) MS Access
D) MS PowerPoint
Answer: B

20. Which component is considered the ‘heart’ of the computer?
A) Monitor
B) RAM
C) CPU
D) Keyboard
Answer: C

21. The smallest unit of data in a computer is:
A) Byte
B) Bit
C) Nibble
D) Word
Answer: B

22. Which is a volatile memory?
A) Hard Disk
B) ROM
C) Flash
D) RAM
Answer: D

23. What is the main function of an operating system?
A) Word processing
B) Managing hardware and software
C) Browsing the internet
D) Printing documents
Answer: B

24. Which of these is an output device?
A) Scanner
B) Keyboard
C) Printer
D) Mouse
Answer: C

25. What is the default extension of Word documents in newer versions?
A) .txt
B) .doc
C) .docx
D) .pdf
Answer: C

26. A computer virus is a:
A) Type of hardware
B) Computer program that can replicate itself
C) Manual error
D) External device
Answer: B

27. Which of the following is a programming language?
A) MS Word
B) C++
C) Excel
D) PowerPoint
Answer: B

28. Which of these is not a type of computer?
A) Microcomputer
B) Minicomputer
C) Supercomputer
D) Megacomputer
Answer: D

29. What is the function of CTRL + S?
A) Save
B) Select
C) Search
D) Stop
Answer: A

30. Which part of the computer connects all other parts together?
A) Monitor
B) Motherboard
C) Keyboard
D) RAM
Answer: B

31. What is a modem used for?
A) Storing data
B) Scanning images
C) Connecting to the Internet
D) Printing documents
Answer: C

32. Which of the following is used to present slides?
A) MS Word
B) MS PowerPoint
C) MS Excel
D) MS Outlook
Answer: B

33. Which of these is not a type of computer memory?
A) RAM
B) ROM
C) CPU
D) Cache
Answer: C

34. What does URL stand for?
A) Uniform Resource Locator
B) Universal Resource Link
C) Uniform Resource Link
D) Unified Resource Locator
Answer: A

35. Shortcut for copying selected text in Windows:
A) CTRL + C
B) CTRL + V
C) CTRL + X
D) CTRL + Z
Answer: A

36. What is a file extension for a PowerPoint file?
A) .docx
B) .xlsx
C) .pptx
D) .exe
Answer: C

37. Which port is used to connect a keyboard or mouse?
A) VGA
B) USB
C) HDMI
D) LAN
Answer: B

38. Where is data temporarily stored in a computer?
A) ROM
B) Hard Drive
C) RAM
D) SSD
Answer: C

39. The Internet and the World Wide Web are:
A) The same thing
B) Two different things
C) Types of browsers
D) Parts of software
Answer: B

40. Which of the following is not a Microsoft Office application?
A) Word
B) Excel
C) Photoshop
D) PowerPoint
Answer: C

41. Which company developed Windows OS?
A) Apple
B) IBM
C) Microsoft
D) Google
Answer: C

42. Which file format is commonly used for videos?
A) .mp3
B) .jpg
C) .mp4
D) .docx
Answer: C

43. What does ISP stand for?
A) Internet Security Protocol
B) Internet Service Provider
C) Internal Service Protocol
D) Internal Server Provider
Answer: B

44. A computer network is:
A) A group of interconnected computers
B) A hardware device
C) A type of software
D) A security tool
Answer: A

45. What does PDF stand for?
A) Portable Document Format
B) Program Data File
C) Private Document File
D) Printed Data Format
Answer: A

46. A clickable text or image that takes you to another page is a:
A) Web page
B) Browser
C) Hyperlink
D) Tag
Answer: C

47. What is an example of cloud storage?
A) USB drive
B) Dropbox
C) Hard disk
D) CD
Answer: B

48. What is phishing?
A) Internet sport
B) Sending fake emails to steal data
C) Sharing passwords
D) Virus removal
Answer: B

49. Which of these is a mobile operating system?
A) Windows
B) macOS
C) Linux
D) Android
Answer: D

50. What is the function of a firewall?
A) Display graphics
B) Control power supply
C) Protect against unauthorized access
D) Increase internet speed
Answer: C

Here are 50 more multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on a basic computer course. These cover a range of topics such as system components, software, cybersecurity, the internet, and basic digital literacy.

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Basic Computer Course – Additional 50 MCQs

1. Which part of the computer displays the output?
A) Keyboard
B) Mouse
C) Monitor
D) Printer
Answer: C

2. Which of these is an example of system software?
A) MS Word
B) Antivirus
C) Windows 10
D) Adobe Photoshop
Answer: C

3. What is the shortcut to paste copied content in Windows?
A) CTRL + C
B) CTRL + V
C) CTRL + X
D) CTRL + P
Answer: B

4. Which is a type of non-volatile memory?
A) RAM
B) Cache
C) ROM
D) Registers
Answer: C

5. What does ALU stand for?
A) Arithmetic Logic Unit
B) Automatic Logic Unit
C) Advanced Level Unit
D) Arithmetic Level Unit
Answer: A

6. What is the main page of a website called?
A) Bookmark
B) Index
C) Homepage
D) Tab
Answer: C

7. What is the shortcut key to print a document?
A) CTRL + S
B) CTRL + V
C) CTRL + P
D) CTRL + Z
Answer: C

8. Which device connects a computer to a network?
A) Modem
B) Printer
C) Scanner
D) Webcam
Answer: A

9. What does BIOS stand for?
A) Basic Integrated Operating System
B) Basic Input Output System
C) Binary Input Output Scheme
D) Basic Internal Operation Setup
Answer: B

10. What does drag and drop refer to?
A) Clicking a button
B) Typing text
C) Moving items using a mouse
D) Restarting the computer
Answer: C

11. Which of the following is not an input device?
A) Mouse
B) Scanner
C) Keyboard
D) Projector
Answer: D

12. What is phishing used for?
A) Editing images
B) Improving speed
C) Stealing sensitive data
D) Printing files
Answer: C

13. What is the function of the recycle bin?
A) Stores deleted files
B) Stores downloaded files
C) Formats drives
D) Scans for viruses
Answer: A

14. What is a byte?
A) 4 bits
B) 2 bits
C) 16 bits
D) 8 bits
Answer: D

15. What is the default alignment for text in MS Word?
A) Left
B) Right
C) Center
D) Justify
Answer: A

16. A firewall protects against:
A) Hardware failure
B) Unauthorized access
C) Power outages
D) Physical theft
Answer: B

17. What is the shortcut to undo an action in Windows?
A) CTRL + Z
B) CTRL + Y
C) CTRL + U
D) CTRL + S
Answer: A

18. Which of the following is an email service?
A) Google Drive
B) Gmail
C) YouTube
D) Dropbox
Answer: B

19. Which of the following is used for video conferencing?
A) WordPad
B) Excel
C) Zoom
D) Notepad
Answer: C

20. .EXE files are:
A) Image files
B) Executable files
C) Music files
D) Video files
Answer: B

21. Which shortcut is used to open a new window/tab in most browsers?
A) CTRL + O
B) CTRL + W
C) CTRL + T
D) CTRL + H
Answer: C

22. Which of these is a compressed file format?
A) .jpg
B) .mp3
C) .zip
D) .exe
Answer: C

23. What is a spreadsheet mainly used for?
A) Writing letters
B) Making presentations
C) Managing data and calculations
D) Drawing
Answer: C

24. Which of the following is not a web-based email provider?
A) Gmail
B) Outlook
C) Yahoo Mail
D) Photoshop
Answer: D

25. Which device is used to project visuals on a screen?
A) Scanner
B) Projector
C) Monitor
D) Modem
Answer: B

26. Which of these is a secondary storage device?
A) RAM
B) CPU
C) Hard Disk
D) Register
Answer: C

27. The function of antivirus software is to:
A) Increase screen brightness
B) Improve typing speed
C) Detect and remove malware
D) Format text
Answer: C

28. Which file extension is used for Excel spreadsheets?
A) .docx
B) .xlsx
C) .pptx
D) .pdf
Answer: B

29. A menu in a software application contains:
A) Power buttons
B) A list of options or commands
C) Cables
D) Devices
Answer: B

30. The address bar in a browser is used to:
A) Print a page
B) Type website URLs
C) Close the browser
D) Zoom in/out
Answer: B

31. What does Ctrl + X do?
A) Copies
B) Pastes
C) Cuts
D) Saves
Answer: C

32. What kind of software is a browser?
A) Application software
B) System software
C) Utility software
D) Firmware
Answer: A

33. The term “booting” refers to:
A) Installing software
B) Starting the computer
C) Turning off the system
D) Creating a new folder
Answer: B

34. What does Ctrl + A do in most applications?
A) Open
B) Save
C) Select all
D) Paste
Answer: C

35. Which device is used for voice input?
A) Microphone
B) Webcam
C) Monitor
D) Scanner
Answer: A

36. What is the name of the bar at the bottom of the Windows screen?
A) Status bar
B) Title bar
C) Menu bar
D) Taskbar
Answer: D

37. Which key opens the Start menu in Windows?
A) CTRL
B) ALT
C) Windows key
D) ESC
Answer: C

38. What does Ctrl + N usually do?
A) Opens new document/window
B) Copies
C) Saves
D) Closes
Answer: A

39. What is an icon?
A) A virus
B) A small picture that represents a program
C) A keyboard shortcut
D) An input device
Answer: B

40. Which function key is used to refresh the current window or browser?
A) F2
B) F5
C) F8
D) F10
Answer: B

41. What is a toolbar?
A) A list of files
B) A small bar with buttons to perform actions
C) A window
D) A virus
Answer: B

42. Which of these is a mobile device?
A) Desktop
B) Laptop
C) Smartphone
D) Server
Answer: C

43. Which of these storage types is the fastest?
A) DVD
B) SSD
C) USB Flash Drive
D) HDD
Answer: B

44. To open Task Manager in Windows, you press:
A) CTRL + ALT + DELETE
B) CTRL + X
C) ALT + SHIFT
D) CTRL + ESC
Answer: A

45. What is cloud computing?
A) Computing using weather simulations
B) Saving files on remote servers via the internet
C) Processing data in RAM
D) Creating video games
Answer: B

46. Which of these is NOT a valid email component?
A) @ symbol
B) Domain
C) Hashtag (#)
D) Username
Answer: C

47. What type of file is usually used for music?
A) .jpg
B) .mp3
C) .doc
D) .xls
Answer: B

48. What does the Caps Lock key do?
A) Turns on screen light
B) Enables uppercase typing
C) Deletes text
D) Opens a file
Answer: B

49. Where do you plug in a pen drive?
A) VGA port
B) HDMI port
C) USB port
D) LAN port
Answer: C

50. Which key is used to move to the next line in a document?
A) Shift
B) Tab
C) Enter
D) Ctrl
Answer: C

Here are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) focused entirely on Microsoft Word, suitable for basic computer courses or practice tests.

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Microsoft Word – 50 Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the default file extension of a Word document in Microsoft Word 2016 and later?
A) .doc
B) .txt
C) .docx
D) .pdf
Answer: C

2. Which shortcut is used to make text bold in Word?
A) Ctrl + U
B) Ctrl + I
C) Ctrl + B
D) Ctrl + S
Answer: C

3. Which of these views is NOT available in MS Word?
A) Print Layout
B) Web Layout
C) Reading Layout
D) Presentation Layout
Answer: D

4. What does ‘Ctrl + S’ do in MS Word?
A) Save document
B) Select all
C) Superscript text
D) Spell check
Answer: A

5. Which bar shows the name of the currently open document?
A) Status Bar
B) Menu Bar
C) Title Bar
D) Tool Bar
Answer: C

6. What is the function of the ‘Thesaurus’ in Word?
A) Checks spelling
B) Shows grammar rules
C) Suggests synonyms and antonyms
D) Converts text to uppercase
Answer: C

7. Which key combination is used to open a new document?
A) Ctrl + N
B) Ctrl + O
C) Ctrl + W
D) Ctrl + P
Answer: A

8. In which tab will you find the ‘Page Number’ option?
A) Home
B) Layout
C) Insert
D) Review
Answer: C

9. What is the function of ‘Ctrl + Z’?
A) Redo
B) Undo
C) Cut
D) Save
Answer: B

10. What does the ‘Justify’ alignment do to text?
A) Aligns text to the left
B) Aligns text to the right
C) Centers the text
D) Aligns text evenly on both sides
Answer: D

11. Which feature helps check grammar and spelling in a Word document?
A) Thesaurus
B) Word Count
C) Spelling & Grammar
D) Track Changes
Answer: C

12. What is the default font in Microsoft Word 2016?
A) Times New Roman
B) Arial
C) Calibri
D) Verdana
Answer: C

13. Which tab contains the ‘Styles’ group?
A) File
B) Home
C) Design
D) Layout
Answer: B

14. Which feature is used to combine two or more cells in a table?
A) Merge Cells
B) Split Cells
C) Join Cells
D) Combine
Answer: A

15. What does ‘Ctrl + P’ do?
A) Paste
B) Print
C) Preview
D) Page setup
Answer: B

16. The small square in the lower-right corner of a selection box is called:
A) Resize box
B) End mark
C) Drag handle
D) Sizing handle
Answer: D

17. Which option is used to insert a header or footer?
A) File tab
B) Layout tab
C) View tab
D) Insert tab
Answer: D

18. What is a WordArt in MS Word?
A) Word count tool
B) Stylized text effect
C) Grammar tool
D) Document format
Answer: B

19. Which menu option is used to save a document with a different name?
A) Save
B) Open
C) Save As
D) Rename
Answer: C

20. Which tab allows you to change margins?
A) View
B) Insert
C) Page Layout / Layout
D) Design
Answer: C

21. What is the shortcut for ‘Cut’?
A) Ctrl + X
B) Ctrl + V
C) Ctrl + Z
D) Ctrl + C
Answer: A

22. How do you insert a table in Word?
A) Layout > Table
B) Home > Insert Table
C) Insert > Table
D) View > Table
Answer: C

23. Which of these is used to insert a comment?
A) Review > New Comment
B) Insert > Comment
C) View > Comment
D) Design > Comment
Answer: A

24. Which command is used to find and replace text?
A) Edit > Search
B) Home > Find
C) Home > Replace
D) Review > Replace
Answer: C

25. How can you insert page breaks in Word?
A) Press Ctrl + Enter
B) Press Alt + Enter
C) Press Shift + Enter
D) Press Tab
Answer: A

26. What does the ‘Track Changes’ feature do?
A) Tracks typing speed
B) Highlights spelling errors
C) Records edits for review
D) Creates footnotes
Answer: C

27. Which key is used to create a new paragraph?
A) Tab
B) Space
C) Enter
D) Backspace
Answer: C

28. Where can you see word count in Word?
A) Menu bar
B) Title bar
C) Status bar
D) Review tab
Answer: C

29. What does ‘Ctrl + E’ do?
A) Align left
B) Align right
C) Center align
D) Justify
Answer: C

30. How can you apply bold and italic styles together?
A) Ctrl + B then Ctrl + I
B) Ctrl + BI
C) Alt + B + I
D) Right-click > Bold + Italic
Answer: A

31. Which feature is used to create a table of contents?
A) Index
B) Bookmark
C) TOC Generator
D) References > Table of Contents
Answer: D

32. Which command is used to save a document for the first time?
A) Ctrl + S
B) Ctrl + C
C) File > Save
D) File > Save As
Answer: D

33. Where can you set up columns in Word?
A) Layout > Columns
B) Home > Paragraph
C) Design > Format
D) View > Columns
Answer: A

34. Which part of Word displays information like page number and word count?
A) Ribbon
B) Status bar
C) Title bar
D) Toolbar
Answer: B

35. Which of these file types can be opened in Word?
A) .docx
B) .pdf
C) .txt
D) All of the above
Answer: D

36. What is the default paper size in Word?
A) A3
B) A4
C) Letter
D) Legal
Answer: B

37. Which option is used to view a document before printing?
A) Print
B) Preview
C) File > Print
D) Save As
Answer: C

38. What does the ruler help with in Word?
A) Aligning text
B) Measuring image size
C) Inserting objects
D) Page numbering
Answer: A

39. Which tool is used to highlight text in color?
A) Font color
B) Shading
C) Highlighter
D) Style
Answer: C

40. What happens when you press Ctrl + Home?
A) Goes to end of the document
B) Moves to top of the document
C) Opens a new document
D) Deletes first line
Answer: B

41. Which function key is used for spelling check?
A) F5
B) F7
C) F10
D) F12
Answer: B

42. What is a template in Word?
A) A shortcut
B) A preset document layout
C) A font style
D) A format error
Answer: B

43. Which key is used for deleting one character to the right of the cursor?
A) Backspace
B) Delete
C) Enter
D) Tab
Answer: B

44. Which tab has options to change font style and size?
A) Insert
B) View
C) Home
D) File
Answer: C

45. Which shortcut key opens the ‘Open’ dialog box?
A) Ctrl + N
B) Ctrl + P
C) Ctrl + O
D) Ctrl + E
Answer: C

46. What is the maximum zoom level in Word?
A) 100%
B) 200%
C) 500%
D) 1000%
Answer: C

47. Which command is used to insert a footnote?
A) Insert > Comment
B) Insert > Footnote
C) References > Insert Footnote
D) View > Footnote
Answer: C

48. What does the Format Painter tool do?
A) Paints shapes
B) Copies formatting
C) Changes font
D) Adds background
Answer: B

49. Which alignment distributes text evenly across the page?
A) Center
B) Left
C) Right
D) Justify
Answer: D

50. What is the shortcut for saving a document as a PDF?
A) File > Export > Create PDF/XPS
B) Ctrl + S
C) Ctrl + Shift + P
D) Insert > Save As PDF
Answer: A

Here are 50 more multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on Microsoft Word, continuing from the previous sets, focused on more features, formatting, functions, and tools available in Microsoft Word.

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Microsoft Word – Additional 50 Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is used to insert symbols in Word?
A) Insert > Object
B) Insert > Equation
C) Insert > Symbol
D) Insert > Image
Answer: C

2. What is the purpose of ‘SmartArt’ in Word?
A) Insert charts
B) Insert stylized text
C) Insert diagrams and visuals
D) Insert audio
Answer: C

3. What does the ‘Drop Cap’ feature do?
A) Highlights a word
B) Enlarges the first letter of a paragraph
C) Converts text to uppercase
D) Adds a caption
Answer: B

4. What does ‘Ctrl + Shift + >’ do?
A) Increases font size
B) Decreases font size
C) Moves text right
D) Changes font style
Answer: A

5. Which view is best for reading documents on screen?
A) Print Layout
B) Web Layout
C) Draft
D) Read Mode
Answer: D

6. Which tab contains the ‘Watermark’ option?
A) Insert
B) Design
C) Layout
D) References
Answer: B

7. What is the function of the ‘Navigation Pane’?
A) Switch between applications
B) Search document content
C) Translate content
D) Add comments
Answer: B

8. Which tab is used to create mail merge documents?
A) Review
B) Insert
C) Mailings
D) View
Answer: C

9. What is the shortcut for inserting a hyperlink?
A) Ctrl + K
B) Ctrl + H
C) Ctrl + L
D) Ctrl + U
Answer: A

10. Which tool is used to show hidden formatting marks?
A) Ruler
B) Paragraph Marks
C) Gridlines
D) Styles
Answer: B

11. How can you insert a cover page in Word?
A) File > Cover
B) Insert > Cover Page
C) Home > Page > Cover
D) Design > Cover
Answer: B

12. What does the ‘Split’ option do in Word?
A) Splits a cell in a table
B) Splits a paragraph
C) Splits the window to view different parts
D) Splits document into sections
Answer: C

13. Which of these features converts handwriting to text?
A) Ink to Text
B) Draw Tool
C) Format Painter
D) WordArt
Answer: A

14. What does the ‘Protect Document’ option do?
A) Adds antivirus protection
B) Prevents others from editing
C) Encrypts the file
D) Both B and C
Answer: D

15. What happens when you double-click the top margin of a page in Word?
A) Insert header
B) Open Design tab
C) Close header
D) Switch to Print Layout
Answer: A

16. Which key combination is used to insert a page break?
A) Ctrl + B
B) Ctrl + Enter
C) Shift + Enter
D) Ctrl + Shift + P
Answer: B

17. Which of the following allows you to add a background color to a page?
A) Design > Page Color
B) Home > Shading
C) Insert > Color
D) Layout > Page Background
Answer: A

18. What does ‘Ctrl + Shift + C’ do in Word?
A) Copy text
B) Copy formatting
C) Change font
D) Count words
Answer: B

19. What is the purpose of the ‘Clipboard’ group in the Home tab?
A) Format text
B) Insert images
C) Cut, copy, paste
D) Review spelling
Answer: C

20. Which of the following is not a valid zoom option?
A) 10%
B) 500%
C) 1000%
D) 75%
Answer: C

21. What does the ‘Compare’ tool do in Word?
A) Compares two documents
B) Tracks changes
C) Highlights similar paragraphs
D) Removes duplicates
Answer: A

22. What is the use of ‘Restrict Editing’?
A) Allows only reading
B) Locks all formatting
C) Enables only specific changes
D) All of the above
Answer: D

23. Which of these options is used to insert an equation in Word?
A) Insert > Equation
B) Layout > Equation
C) References > Insert
D) Review > Formula
Answer: A

24. What does the ‘Bookmark’ feature do?
A) Saves a document
B) Marks a place in the document
C) Adds a comment
D) Shares the file
Answer: B

25. Which of the following is used to insert an image from a file?
A) Insert > Pictures
B) Home > Media
C) Layout > Picture
D) Design > Insert
Answer: A

26. What is the function of the ‘Outline’ view?
A) Shows images only
B) Shows only headings
C) Edits tables
D) Inserts bullets
Answer: B

27. What does the Format Painter copy?
A) Text only
B) Formatting only
C) Both text and formatting
D) Tables
Answer: B

28. What is ‘Widow/Orphan control’ in Word?
A) Page numbering style
B) Prevents single lines at start/end of page
C) Footer style
D) Comment tool
Answer: B

29. Which tool checks for compatibility issues?
A) Inspector
B) Compatibility Checker
C) Track Changes
D) Document Panel
Answer: B

30. Which feature lets you insert a list of figures?
A) References > Index
B) Insert > Table
C) References > Insert Caption
D) References > Insert Table of Figures
Answer: D

31. Which of these is used to insert a text box?
A) Insert > Text Box
B) Layout > Text Box
C) Design > Text
D) Home > Insert Box
Answer: A

32. What is a macro in Word?
A) A formatting tool
B) A graphic
C) A recorded sequence of actions
D) A paragraph style
Answer: C

33. What does ‘Ctrl + F’ do in Word?
A) Opens Font dialog
B) Finds text
C) Formats text
D) Freezes screen
Answer: B

34. What is the default orientation in Word?
A) Portrait
B) Landscape
C) Square
D) Rotated
Answer: A

35. Which tab helps you add page borders?
A) Insert
B) Design
C) Layout
D) Review
Answer: B

36. Which file format preserves document formatting and allows easy sharing?
A) .txt
B) .docx
C) .rtf
D) .pdf
Answer: D

37. What is the use of ‘Read Aloud’ in Word?
A) Highlights grammar
B) Reads the text aloud
C) Shares document
D) Formats text
Answer: B

38. Which shortcut opens the Font dialog box?
A) Ctrl + F
B) Ctrl + Shift + F
C) Ctrl + D
D) Ctrl + T
Answer: C

39. What does the ‘Insert > Object’ feature do?
A) Inserts bookmarks
B) Inserts a file
C) Inserts an embedded file like Excel
D) Inserts an icon
Answer: C

40. What does a red wavy underline indicate?
A) Grammar mistake
B) Spelling error
C) Formatting error
D) Style conflict
Answer: B

41. What does a blue wavy underline mean?
A) Grammar mistake
B) Spelling error
C) Contextual spelling or homonym issue
D) Formatting mismatch
Answer: C

42. What does ‘AutoCorrect’ do in Word?
A) Saves text
B) Automatically corrects common spelling/grammar
C) Changes font
D) Highlights headings
Answer: B

43. Which of these removes all formatting from selected text?
A) Clear All
B) Remove
C) Reset
D) Erase
Answer: A

44. What is the function of ‘Quick Parts’?
A) Insert reusable text
B) Insert charts
C) Format templates
D) Spell check
Answer: A

45. Which option is best for creating a form in Word?
A) Review tab
B) Developer tab
C) Layout tab
D) Insert tab
Answer: B

46. What is the maximum font size available in Word by default?
A) 72
B) 100
C) 96
D) 144
Answer: A

47. Which shortcut pastes text without formatting?
A) Ctrl + V
B) Ctrl + Shift + V
C) Alt + V
D) Ctrl + Alt + V
Answer: D

48. What is the function of ‘Line Spacing’?
A) Aligns text
B) Changes font size
C) Adjusts space between lines
D) Justifies text
Answer: C

49. Which menu allows you to turn on rulers?
A) File
B) Home
C) View
D) Layout
Answer: C

50. What does a green wavy underline mean in Word?
A) Spelling error
B) Repeated word
C) Grammar error
D) Page break
Answer: C

Here are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on Microsoft Excel, covering basic to intermediate features, formulas, functions, tools, and interface elements:

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Microsoft Excel – 50 Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the default file extension of an Excel workbook in recent versions?
A) .xls
B) .xlsx
C) .csv
D) .docx
Answer: B

2. Which function is used to find the average of a range?
A) =SUM()
B) =AVG()
C) =AVERAGE()
D) =TOTAL()
Answer: C

3. What symbol is used to start a formula in Excel?
A) =
B) +
C) –
D) /
Answer: A

4. What does the VLOOKUP function do?
A) Sorts data
B) Searches vertically for a value
C) Searches horizontally for a value
D) Validates data
Answer: B

5. Which cell reference changes when copied to another cell?
A) Absolute reference
B) Mixed reference
C) Relative reference
D) Fixed reference
Answer: C

6. What is the keyboard shortcut to save a workbook?
A) Ctrl + P
B) Ctrl + S
C) Ctrl + A
D) Ctrl + W
Answer: B

7. What does the function =COUNT(A1:A5) do?
A) Counts all characters
B) Counts all non-empty cells
C) Counts only numbers
D) Counts formulas
Answer: C

8. Which tab contains the ‘PivotTable’ option?
A) Insert
B) Home
C) Data
D) Review
Answer: A

9. What is a cell in Excel?
A) A data format
B) A rectangular box where data is entered
C) A chart
D) A formula
Answer: B

10. What does the Fill Handle do in Excel?
A) Copies content
B) Extends a series
C) Fills formulas
D) All of the above
Answer: D

11. What function returns the current date?
A) =TIME()
B) =DATE()
C) =NOW()
D) =TODAY()
Answer: D

12. What type of chart is best for showing parts of a whole?
A) Line chart
B) Column chart
C) Pie chart
D) Bar chart
Answer: C

13. Which shortcut inserts a new worksheet?
A) Shift + F11
B) Ctrl + N
C) Alt + F4
D) F2
Answer: A

14. Which function returns the highest value?
A) =MAX()
B) =LARGE()
C) =BIG()
D) =TOP()
Answer: A

15. Which of these is not a valid Excel function?
A) =SUM()
B) =AVERAGE()
C) =TOTAL()
D) =IF()
Answer: C

16. What does the IF function do?
A) Adds numbers
B) Checks conditions
C) Sorts data
D) Multiplies cells
Answer: B

17. What is the maximum number of rows in Excel 2016+?
A) 65536
B) 100000
C) 1048576
D) 500000
Answer: C

18. What is the intersection of a row and a column called?
A) Cell
B) Table
C) Range
D) Field
Answer: A

19. Which chart type is ideal for trends over time?
A) Bar chart
B) Line chart
C) Pie chart
D) Scatter chart
Answer: B

20. How do you start a new line in the same cell?
A) Press Enter
B) Ctrl + Enter
C) Alt + Enter
D) Shift + Enter
Answer: C

21. What does the CONCATENATE function do?
A) Multiplies values
B) Joins text
C) Filters data
D) Adds numbers
Answer: B

22. What is a range in Excel?
A) A single cell
B) A group of cells
C) A workbook
D) A worksheet
Answer: B

23. How are columns labeled in Excel?
A) Numbers
B) Letters
C) Symbols
D) Roman numerals
Answer: B

24. What is the shortcut for Cut?
A) Ctrl + C
B) Ctrl + V
C) Ctrl + X
D) Ctrl + P
Answer: C

25. Which of the following can be used to sort data?
A) Home tab
B) Insert tab
C) Data tab
D) View tab
Answer: C

26. Which Excel feature allows filtering data?
A) Sort
B) Table
C) Filter
D) Data Validation
Answer: C

27. What does ‘Freeze Panes’ do?
A) Locks rows and columns in view
B) Saves the file
C) Colors the cells
D) Copies data
Answer: A

28. Which of the following is not a type of cell referencing?
A) Relative
B) Absolute
C) Mixed
D) Conditional
Answer: D

29. What is the default row height in Excel?
A) 10
B) 12.75
C) 15
D) 18
Answer: B

30. Which function returns the number of characters in a cell?
A) =NUM()
B) =LEN()
C) =TEXT()
D) =COUNT()
Answer: B

31. What does the ‘Merge & Center’ feature do?
A) Merges cells and aligns text center
B) Adds borders
C) Centers text only
D) Splits cells
Answer: A

32. How do you insert a comment in a cell?
A) Right-click > Insert Comment
B) Home > Review > Add Comment
C) Press Ctrl + M
D) Both A and B
Answer: D

33. Which function is used to count blank cells?
A) =COUNTA()
B) =COUNTBLANK()
C) =COUNT()
D) =BLANK()
Answer: B

34. What is the use of the Name Box?
A) Shows the active cell
B) Shows cell content
C) Shows function name
D) Shows sheet name
Answer: A

35. Which function is used for conditional calculations?
A) =SUMIF()
B) =COUNTIF()
C) =IF()
D) All of the above
Answer: D

36. What is the use of the formula bar?
A) Displays formulas
B) Allows editing formulas
C) Shows cell address
D) A and B
Answer: D

37. What is conditional formatting used for?
A) Formatting data based on values
B) Coloring headings
C) Inserting dates
D) Sorting cells
Answer: A

38. What does the TRIM function do?
A) Removes numbers
B) Deletes cells
C) Removes extra spaces
D) Capitalizes text
Answer: C

39. What is the shortcut to create a chart?
A) Alt + F1
B) Ctrl + F1
C) Shift + F1
D) F2
Answer: A

40. Which function rounds a number to a specified number of digits?
A) =ROUND()
B) =ROUNDDOWN()
C) =ROUNDUP()
D) All of the above
Answer: D

41. What does the COUNTIF function do?
A) Counts all cells
B) Counts based on a condition
C) Sums values
D) None of the above
Answer: B

42. How can you rename a worksheet?
A) Double-click the tab
B) Right-click > Rename
C) Use the Format menu
D) All of the above
Answer: D

43. Which tool is used to check spelling in Excel?
A) Grammar Check
B) Spell Checker
C) AutoCorrect
D) Review > Spelling
Answer: D

44. What is the shortcut for undo?
A) Ctrl + U
B) Ctrl + Y
C) Ctrl + Z
D) Ctrl + X
Answer: C

45. Which feature suggests values as you type?
A) AutoComplete
B) AutoFill
C) AutoCorrect
D) Flash Fill
Answer: A

46. Which function returns the current time?
A) =NOW()
B) =TIME()
C) =TODAY()
D) =CURRENT()
Answer: B

47. What is the maximum number of columns in Excel 2016+?
A) 1024
B) 16384
C) 32000
D) 65536
Answer: B

48. What does Ctrl + Arrow key do in Excel?
A) Moves one cell
B) Moves to edge of data region
C) Moves to next worksheet
D) Opens menu
Answer: B

49. What is the shortcut for ‘Find and Replace’?
A) Ctrl + F
B) Ctrl + H
C) Ctrl + G
D) Ctrl + Shift + F
Answer: B

50. What does Flash Fill do?
A) Automatically fills cells based on patterns
B) Copies formatting
C) Removes blank cells
D) Highlights cells
Answer: A

Here are 50 additional MCQs based on Microsoft Excel, focusing on more intermediate and practical concepts, formulas, functions, tools, and features:

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Microsoft Excel – Additional 50 Multiple Choice Questions

1. What does the formula =A1&B1 do?
A) Subtracts B1 from A1
B) Adds A1 and B1
C) Joins text from A1 and B1
D) Divides A1 by B1
Answer: C

2. What does the function =LEFT("Excel",2) return?
A) El
B) Ex
C) xl
D) ce
Answer: B

3. What is the use of the =INDIRECT() function?
A) Create a reference from a text string
B) Show indirect values
C) Link other workbooks
D) None of the above
Answer: A

4. What does the =MOD(10,3) return?
A) 3
B) 1
C) 0
D) 2
Answer: B

5. Which error is shown when a formula has invalid numbers?
A) #REF!
B) #VALUE!
C) #NAME?
D) #NUM!
Answer: D

6. What does the =NOW() function return?
A) Current date
B) Current time
C) Current date and time
D) Current month
Answer: C

7. Which tab allows you to protect a worksheet?
A) File
B) Home
C) Review
D) View
Answer: C

8. What will =ROUND(23.785, 2) return?
A) 23.79
B) 23.78
C) 23.7
D) 24
Answer: A

9. What does =INT(4.9) return?
A) 5
B) 4.9
C) 4
D) 0
Answer: C

10. Which of these allows data entry from a predefined list?
A) Conditional Formatting
B) Data Validation
C) Named Range
D) Autofill
Answer: B

11. Which tool automatically completes data when a pattern is detected?
A) Flash Fill
B) AutoComplete
C) AutoCorrect
D) Fill Handle
Answer: A

12. Which operator is used for exponentiation?
A) ^
B) *
C) **
D) %
Answer: A

13. What does =MATCH(50, A1:A10, 0) do?
A) Finds the highest number
B) Returns position of 50
C) Matches value with condition
D) Replaces 50 with 0
Answer: B

14. Which of the following functions returns the number of working days between two dates?
A) =DAYS()
B) =NETWORKDAYS()
C) =WORKDAYS()
D) =DATEDIF()
Answer: B

15. What does =LEN("Excel 365") return?
A) 8
B) 9
C) 10
D) 7
Answer: B

16. Which feature allows you to view totals as you scroll through large data?
A) Freeze Panes
B) Split
C) Zoom
D) Filter
Answer: A

17. What does =ISNUMBER("123") return?
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C) #VALUE!
D) 123
Answer: B

18. What does the Transpose option do in Paste Special?
A) Switches rows and columns
B) Converts text to numbers
C) Removes formulas
D) Rotates text
Answer: A

19. Which of the following is NOT a valid chart type in Excel?
A) Funnel
B) Radar
C) Pyramid
D) Bridge
Answer: D

20. Which function would you use to look up both rows and columns?
A) VLOOKUP
B) HLOOKUP
C) INDEX & MATCH
D) XLOOKUP
Answer: C

21. What is a dynamic array function introduced in Excel 365?
A) =SUM()
B) =SEQUENCE()
C) =LEN()
D) =TRIM()
Answer: B

22. Which function returns the nth largest value from a list?
A) =MAX()
B) =LARGE()
C) =INDEX()
D) =RANK()
Answer: B

23. What does =TEXT(TODAY(),"DD-MM-YYYY") return?
A) A number
B) A date string
C) An error
D) A time value
Answer: B

24. What feature allows you to consolidate data from multiple ranges?
A) Solver
B) Goal Seek
C) Consolidate
D) Subtotal
Answer: C

25. Which Excel tool is used for what-if analysis?
A) Consolidate
B) Data Table
C) Data Validation
D) Charts
Answer: B

26. Which tab allows you to insert sparklines?
A) Insert
B) Home
C) Formulas
D) Review
Answer: A

27. Which function will convert a number to text in a specific format?
A) =TEXT()
B) =CONVERT()
C) =FORMAT()
D) =TOSTRING()
Answer: A

28. What does =REPT("*",5) return?
A) *****
B) * * * * *
C) 5
D) Error
Answer: A

29. What is the maximum number of characters in a single Excel cell?
A) 32,000
B) 65,536
C) 255
D) 1,048,576
Answer: B

30. Which function is used to extract a substring from a text starting from the right?
A) =LEFT()
B) =RIGHT()
C) =MID()
D) =TEXT()
Answer: B

31. What does =SEARCH("c","Excel") return?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: C

32. How many arguments can an IF function have?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) Unlimited
Answer: C

33. Which key is used to edit a cell?
A) F2
B) F5
C) F7
D) F9
Answer: A

34. What is a Named Range?
A) A range with a defined name
B) A macro
C) A saved file
D) A table
Answer: A

35. What does the =RANK.EQ() function do?
A) Ranks values in descending order
B) Finds duplicates
C) Ranks equal values with same rank
D) Filters top values
Answer: C

36. What does the =TEXTJOIN(",",TRUE,A1:A3) do?
A) Joins values ignoring blanks
B) Concatenates with spaces
C) Adds numbers
D) Finds errors
Answer: A

37. What is a PivotChart used for?
A) Visualizing PivotTable data
B) Charting functions
C) Linking spreadsheets
D) Data formatting
Answer: A

38. What does =SUBTOTAL(9, A1:A10) calculate?
A) Average
B) Maximum
C) Sum
D) Count
Answer: C

39. Which Excel version introduced XLOOKUP?
A) 2010
B) 2013
C) 2016
D) 365
Answer: D

40. What does the =UNIQUE() function do?
A) Finds duplicate values
B) Filters text
C) Returns distinct values
D) Removes blanks
Answer: C

41. Which feature is best to compare scenarios?
A) Solver
B) Data Table
C) Scenario Manager
D) Consolidate
Answer: C

42. How do you lock a cell reference?
A) Use &
B) Use #
C) Use $
D) Use @
Answer: C

43. Which function is used to calculate depreciation?
A) =PMT()
B) =SLN()
C) =DDB()
D) Both B and C
Answer: D

44. What does the =FILTER() function do?
A) Filters rows based on a condition
B) Removes empty cells
C) Highlights top items
D) Filters formatting
Answer: A

45. What is the shortcut to insert the current time?
A) Ctrl + ;
B) Ctrl + Shift + :
C) Alt + T
D) Ctrl + :
Answer: B

46. What does =IFERROR(A1/B1, "Error") do?
A) Shows error message
B) Replaces error with “Error”
C) Ignores error
D) None
Answer: B

47. What is the difference between COUNT and COUNTA?
A) COUNT includes blanks
B) COUNTA counts numbers only
C) COUNTA includes all non-empty cells
D) No difference
Answer: C

48. What is the shortcut to recalculate all formulas?
A) F5
B) F9
C) F2
D) Shift + F9
Answer: B

49. What is the maximum number of nested IF functions?
A) 3
B) 7
C) 64
D) 255
Answer: C

50. What does the =RAND() function do?
A) Returns a random number
B) Returns a random integer
C) Returns a random letter
D) Returns a constant value
Answer: A

Here are 50 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) based on Microsoft PowerPoint, covering basic to intermediate concepts, tools, and features:

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Microsoft PowerPoint – 50 Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the default file extension for PowerPoint 2016 and later versions?
A) .ppt
B) .pptx
C) .pps
D) .pot
Answer: B

2. Which tab allows you to insert a new slide?
A) Home
B) Insert
C) Design
D) View
Answer: A

3. What is the default layout when a new slide is inserted?
A) Title Slide
B) Title and Content
C) Blank
D) Two Content
Answer: B

4. What view is best for rearranging slides?
A) Slide Sorter
B) Normal
C) Reading View
D) Outline View
Answer: A

5. Which key starts a slideshow from the beginning?
A) F1
B) F5
C) F11
D) F3
Answer: B

6. What is the purpose of the Slide Master?
A) Create animations
B) Set up headers and footers
C) Apply consistent formatting
D) Add charts
Answer: C

7. Which tab contains the option to insert SmartArt?
A) View
B) Insert
C) Design
D) Animations
Answer: B

8. What feature helps apply the same design to all slides?
A) Transition
B) Theme
C) Layout
D) Background
Answer: B

9. Which file format allows you to open a presentation directly in slideshow mode?
A) .pptx
B) .potx
C) .ppsx
D) .ppt
Answer: C

10. Which tab do you use to apply slide transitions?
A) Animations
B) Design
C) Transitions
D) Home
Answer: C

11. What is the use of the “Rehearse Timings” option?
A) Edit text
B) Set transition duration
C) Record time for each slide
D) Insert audio
Answer: C

12. What does the “Animation Pane” do?
A) Lists all animations on a slide
B) Records animation
C) Adds sound effects
D) Resets animations
Answer: A

13. Which key ends a running presentation?
A) Esc
B) Ctrl
C) Tab
D) F6
Answer: A

14. What type of view displays slides as thumbnails?
A) Reading View
B) Outline View
C) Slide Sorter
D) Notes Page
Answer: C

15. What feature allows you to draw on slides during a slideshow?
A) Pen Tool
B) Annotate
C) Review Mode
D) Edit View
Answer: A

16. Which option is used to insert video into a slide?
A) Design → Media
B) Insert → Video
C) File → Import
D) Transitions → Video
Answer: B

17. Which file extension is used for PowerPoint templates?
A) .pptx
B) .ppsx
C) .potx
D) .ptx
Answer: C

18. Which key combination is used to duplicate a slide?
A) Ctrl + D
B) Ctrl + V
C) Ctrl + Shift + S
D) Ctrl + T
Answer: A

19. How can you apply the same transition to all slides?
A) Right-click and choose “Apply All”
B) Use Slide Master
C) Click “Apply to All” in the Transitions tab
D) Copy and paste
Answer: C

20. Which option lets you view speaker notes while presenting?
A) Slide Sorter
B) Presenter View
C) Reading View
D) Full Screen
Answer: B

21. What does the Slide Layout option control?
A) Animation effects
B) Slide transitions
C) Placeholder arrangement
D) Design theme
Answer: C

22. What is the purpose of hyperlinks in PowerPoint?
A) Add sound
B) Connect to web pages or slides
C) Apply animation
D) Insert images
Answer: B

23. What type of content can you embed in PowerPoint slides?
A) Text
B) Videos
C) Charts
D) All of the above
Answer: D

24. What does the Format Painter do?
A) Paints slide backgrounds
B) Copies formatting
C) Edits animations
D) Adds transitions
Answer: B

25. Which of the following is not a slide layout type?
A) Title and Content
B) Two Content
C) Picture with Caption
D) Slide Split
Answer: D

26. What is the maximum zoom level in PowerPoint?
A) 200%
B) 300%
C) 400%
D) 500%
Answer: C

27. Which tab provides options to add headers and footers?
A) Home
B) Insert
C) Design
D) Slide Show
Answer: B

28. How can you insert audio from your PC?
A) Insert → Audio → Audio on My PC
B) Design → Audio
C) View → Audio
D) Slide Show → Audio
Answer: A

29. What is the default orientation of slides in PowerPoint?
A) Landscape
B) Portrait
C) Vertical
D) Horizontal
Answer: A

30. Which feature helps in comparing two presentations?
A) Compare under Review Tab
B) Slide Sorter
C) Master View
D) Animation Pane
Answer: A

31. Which shortcut inserts a new slide?
A) Ctrl + N
B) Ctrl + M
C) Ctrl + S
D) Ctrl + L
Answer: B

32. Where do you find the option to record narration?
A) Insert
B) Slide Show
C) Review
D) Design
Answer: B

33. What is the purpose of the Notes Pane?
A) View slide animations
B) Add presenter notes
C) Edit slide content
D) Insert footer
Answer: B

34. Which command groups multiple objects into one?
A) Arrange
B) Align
C) Group
D) Merge
Answer: C

35. What does the Morph transition do?
A) Blurs the slide
B) Smoothly animates objects from one slide to the next
C) Rotates slides
D) Adds sound
Answer: B

36. Which of the following can be inserted into a slide?
A) Chart
B) Table
C) Video
D) All of the above
Answer: D

37. Which view is best for editing individual slide content?
A) Slide Sorter
B) Outline
C) Normal
D) Reading
Answer: C

38. Where can you find “Slide Number” option?
A) Transitions
B) Insert
C) Design
D) View
Answer: B

39. What is the keyboard shortcut to save a presentation?
A) Ctrl + S
B) Ctrl + M
C) Ctrl + D
D) Ctrl + A
Answer: A

40. Which feature is used to change the background of a slide?
A) Slide Master
B) Design → Format Background
C) Animations
D) View → Background
Answer: B

41. What does the “Hide Slide” option do?
A) Deletes slide
B) Hides the slide during a presentation
C) Removes content
D) Minimizes the slide
Answer: B

42. Which key moves to the next slide during a slideshow?
A) Enter
B) Spacebar
C) Right Arrow
D) All of the above
Answer: D

43. What is a motion path animation?
A) Rotates object
B) Moves object along a path
C) Fades object
D) Zooms object
Answer: B

44. Where can you find the “Action” settings?
A) Transitions
B) Slide Show
C) Insert
D) Animations
Answer: C

45. What does the “Send to Back” option do?
A) Deletes object
B) Duplicates object
C) Moves object behind all others
D) Rotates object
Answer: C

46. Which of the following is used for slide notes printing?
A) Outline
B) Notes Pages
C) Full Page Slides
D) Handouts
Answer: B

47. What does the “Zoom” feature in PowerPoint allow?
A) Adjust font size
B) Focus on specific content interactively
C) Enlarge image
D) Change view mode
Answer: B

48. What is the shortcut for duplicating selected object or text?
A) Ctrl + Shift + D
B) Ctrl + D
C) Alt + D
D) Ctrl + R
Answer: B

49. What does the Slide Master NOT control?
A) Font styles
B) Slide layouts
C) Transition effects
D) Background styles
Answer: C

50. What is the purpose of the “Compress Media” tool?
A) Add background music
B) Reduce file size of videos
C) Convert to audio
D) Improve resolution
Answer: B

Here are 50 more multiple choice questions (MCQs) based on Microsoft PowerPoint, continuing from basic to more advanced features and practical usage:

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Microsoft PowerPoint – 50 More Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which feature is used to create a self-running presentation?
A) Slide Show → Set Up Slide Show
B) Insert → Self Timer
C) Review → Auto Run
D) Design → Auto Play
Answer: A

2. What is the main use of Slide Master in PowerPoint?
A) Record voice
B) Create consistent design and layout
C) Animate slides
D) Add new slides
Answer: B

3. Which of these file formats is best for sharing a read-only presentation?
A) .pptx
B) .pdf
C) .potx
D) .ppsx
Answer: B

4. Where do you find the option to export slides as images?
A) File → Export
B) Design → Export
C) Slide Show → Save
D) Home → Save As
Answer: A

5. What view is most helpful for preparing speaker notes?
A) Notes Page
B) Normal
C) Slide Sorter
D) Reading View
Answer: A

6. Which keyboard shortcut inserts a hyperlink?
A) Ctrl + H
B) Ctrl + K
C) Ctrl + U
D) Ctrl + Shift + L
Answer: B

7. What does the term “Handouts” refer to in PowerPoint?
A) Printed slides for audience
B) Slide transitions
C) Slide animations
D) Slide timings
Answer: A

8. Which tab lets you change slide orientation?
A) Design
B) View
C) Home
D) File
Answer: A

9. What happens if you press Shift + F5 in PowerPoint?
A) Starts presentation from beginning
B) Exits presentation
C) Starts presentation from current slide
D) Opens Slide Master
Answer: C

10. Which option controls slide size (e.g., widescreen or standard)?
A) Design → Slide Size
B) View → Zoom
C) File → Page Setup
D) Insert → Page Layout
Answer: A

11. What is the function of “Zoom for PowerPoint”?
A) Change font size
B) Create interactive navigation
C) Magnify images
D) Insert hyperlinks
Answer: B

12. Which command aligns selected objects?
A) Format → Align
B) Design → Arrange
C) Insert → Group
D) View → Grid
Answer: A

13. What does the “Selection Pane” do?
A) Shows animations
B) Lists and manages all objects
C) Records screen
D) Sorts slides
Answer: B

14. Which is NOT a transition effect in PowerPoint?
A) Fade
B) Wipe
C) Float
D) Dissolve
Answer: C

15. Which shortcut key groups selected objects?
A) Ctrl + G
B) Ctrl + M
C) Ctrl + Shift + G
D) Alt + G
Answer: A

16. What is the purpose of slide transitions?
A) Set font
B) Insert video
C) Add movement between slides
D) Print handouts
Answer: C

17. Which feature allows you to check spelling?
A) Design → Spell Check
B) Review → Spelling
C) File → Grammar
D) View → Proofing
Answer: B

18. Which chart type is NOT supported in PowerPoint?
A) Pie
B) Bar
C) Scatter
D) Radar
Answer: D

19. Which tool helps to align shapes and text boxes neatly?
A) Snap to Grid
B) WordArt
C) Format Painter
D) Slide Master
Answer: A

20. What is the purpose of the “Reuse Slides” feature?
A) Insert slides from another presentation
B) Copy slides
C) Insert templates
D) Duplicate slides
Answer: A

21. Which option will NOT add a text box to a slide?
A) Insert → Text Box
B) Right-click → Add Text
C) View → Notes
D) Draw Text Box from Insert tab
Answer: C

22. Which option allows you to insert predefined decorative text styles?
A) WordArt
B) Text Box
C) Text Highlight
D) Font Style
Answer: A

23. What does a dashed border around an object indicate?
A) Object is locked
B) Object is selected
C) Object is hidden
D) Object is grouped
Answer: B

24. Which PowerPoint feature allows recording voice narration?
A) Slide Master
B) Audio Tools
C) Slide Show → Record Slide Show
D) Transitions → Sound
Answer: C

25. What are animation triggers?
A) Start animations automatically
B) Start animations when a specific object is clicked
C) Stop all animations
D) Add sound
Answer: B

26. Which of these is NOT a standard slide layout?
A) Comparison
B) Section Header
C) Graphic Timeline
D) Title and Content
Answer: C

27. What happens when you select “Keep Source Formatting” during slide import?
A) Applies current theme
B) Discards animation
C) Maintains original design
D) Removes transitions
Answer: C

28. Which view is best for outlining your presentation?
A) Normal View
B) Outline View
C) Slide Sorter
D) Notes Page
Answer: B

29. What type of sound file can you insert into a slide?
A) .mp3
B) .wav
C) .wma
D) All of the above
Answer: D

30. What feature lets you password protect a presentation?
A) File → Info → Protect Presentation
B) View → Protect
C) Slide Show → Lock
D) Insert → Secure
Answer: A

31. Where can you create custom animations?
A) Transitions Tab
B) Animations → Custom Animation
C) View → Animation Pane
D) Review → Custom Effects
Answer: B

32. Which view displays all slides and notes together for printing?
A) Outline
B) Handout Master
C) Notes Page
D) Slide Sorter
Answer: C

33. How can you display multiple windows of the same presentation?
A) File → Duplicate
B) View → New Window
C) Slide Show → Dual View
D) Design → Multiple View
Answer: B

34. Which shortcut opens the Help pane in PowerPoint?
A) F2
B) F7
C) F1
D) Shift + F3
Answer: C

35. What does “Bring to Front” do?
A) Zooms the object
B) Moves object to top layer
C) Hides the object
D) Groups the object
Answer: B

36. What is the use of “Grid and Guides”?
A) Add animations
B) Align objects
C) Insert charts
D) Check spelling
Answer: B

37. What file extension is used for slide shows with macros?
A) .pptm
B) .pptx
C) .pps
D) .potm
Answer: A

38. Which tab allows you to change slide background color?
A) Design
B) Insert
C) View
D) Slide Show
Answer: A

39. Which option removes animations from an object?
A) Delete
B) Reset
C) None
D) Remove Animation
Answer: D

40. What is a custom show in PowerPoint?
A) New theme
B) A selection of specific slides
C) A new template
D) Chart animation
Answer: B

41. What is the use of Action Buttons?
A) Record slides
B) Create interactivity
C) Design themes
D) Print slides
Answer: B

42. Which of the following is not a print layout option?
A) Slides
B) Notes Pages
C) Booklet
D) Handouts
Answer: C

43. Which tool can you use to crop an image?
A) Picture Format → Crop
B) Insert → Edit Image
C) Home → Format
D) View → Image Tool
Answer: A

44. How can you apply the same design to multiple presentations?
A) Save as Template and reuse
B) Copy paste design
C) Use Slide Master
D) Use Format Painter
Answer: A

45. What is the function of Presenter View?
A) Display notes privately
B) Hide animations
C) Loop slides
D) Merge slides
Answer: A

46. Which PowerPoint version introduced the Morph transition?
A) 2010
B) 2013
C) 2016
D) 2007
Answer: C

47. Which of these can NOT be used to control slide show timing?
A) Rehearse Timings
B) Record Slide Show
C) Slide Master
D) Set Up Slide Show
Answer: C

48. What does the “Loop continuously until Esc” option do?
A) Loops a single animation
B) Repeats entire slide show
C) Restarts computer
D) Locks keyboard
Answer: B

49. What is the maximum number of slides you can insert in one presentation?
A) 500
B) 1000
C) 200
D) Limited by system memory
Answer: D

50. What is a placeholder in PowerPoint?
A) Temporary image
B) Content box for text or media
C) Animation
D) Slide transition
Answer: B

Here are 50 multiple choice questions (MCQs) based on Microsoft Access, covering foundational concepts such as tables, queries, forms, reports, and database design:

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✅ Microsoft Access – 50 Multiple Choice Questions

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1. Microsoft Access is a:
A) Spreadsheet software
B) Word processor
C) Database management system
D) Presentation software
Answer: C

2. In Access, a table is used to:
A) Store data
B) Format text
C) Display animations
D) Create charts
Answer: A

3. Which object in Access is used to retrieve specific data by criteria?
A) Form
B) Report
C) Query
D) Table
Answer: C

4. What does a primary key do in a table?
A) Encrypts data
B) Filters records
C) Uniquely identifies each record
D) Sorts records
Answer: C

5. Which data type is best for storing long text in Access?
A) Short Text
B) Memo
C) Long Text
D) AutoNumber
Answer: C

6. The relationship between two tables is created using:
A) Reports
B) Primary and foreign keys
C) Queries
D) Filters
Answer: B

7. What is a foreign key?
A) A unique field
B) A duplicate key
C) A field that references a primary key in another table
D) A password
Answer: C

8. Which view allows you to enter data in a table?
A) Design View
B) Layout View
C) Datasheet View
D) SQL View
Answer: C

9. Which object presents data in a printable format?
A) Table
B) Query
C) Report
D) Form
Answer: C

10. What is the file extension of a Microsoft Access database (2007 and later)?
A) .acc
B) .mdb
C) .accdb
D) .docx
Answer: C

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🧮 Database Design and Tables

11. In Design View, which part defines field types and properties?
A) Field Selector
B) Property Sheet
C) Field Grid
D) Ribbon
Answer: C

12. Which field property ensures data is entered in a specific format?
A) Data Type
B) Format
C) Input Mask
D) Caption
Answer: C

13. A field labeled “Phone Number” should use which data type?
A) Number
B) Currency
C) Short Text
D) Memo
Answer: C

14. What does AutoNumber do in a field?
A) Counts records
B) Creates a drop-down list
C) Automatically generates unique values
D) Copies values
Answer: C

15. Which of the following is NOT a valid data type in Access?
A) Currency
B) Yes/No
C) Date/Time
D) Fraction
Answer: D

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🔍 Queries

16. What is a Select Query?
A) Adds new records
B) Retrieves and displays data
C) Deletes records
D) Sorts database objects
Answer: B

17. What is SQL used for in Access?
A) Creating charts
B) Writing macros
C) Querying and manipulating data
D) Formatting reports
Answer: C

18. Which clause is used to filter records in a query?
A) ORDER BY
B) GROUP BY
C) WHERE
D) SELECT
Answer: C

19. A Parameter Query:
A) Displays forms
B) Prompts the user for input
C) Adds new tables
D) Deletes records
Answer: B

20. What is a Crosstab Query used for?
A) Sorting data
B) Printing reports
C) Summarizing data by rows and columns
D) Exporting data
Answer: C

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🧾 Forms and Reports

21. What is the main purpose of a form?
A) Enter and edit data easily
B) Summarize data
C) Delete records
D) Encrypt the database
Answer: A

22. Which view allows you to modify the design of a form?
A) Form View
B) Layout View
C) Datasheet View
D) SQL View
Answer: B

23. What is a subform?
A) A minimized form
B) A child form linked to a main form
C) A report summary
D) A macro field
Answer: B

24. Which object is best for printing summaries or invoices?
A) Form
B) Table
C) Report
D) Query
Answer: C

25. Reports are typically based on:
A) Queries or tables
B) Forms
C) Macros
D) Modules
Answer: A

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🛠️ Relationships and Keys

26. Which type of relationship is most common?
A) One-to-One
B) One-to-Many
C) Many-to-Many
D) None
Answer: B

27. Which tool helps you visually link tables?
A) Query Designer
B) Relationship Window
C) Form Wizard
D) Report Builder
Answer: B

28. Referential Integrity ensures:
A) Data can be duplicated
B) Unrelated data is accepted
C) Related data stays consistent
D) Forms are locked
Answer: C

29. What does cascade delete do?
A) Prevents deletion
B) Deletes related records
C) Changes data type
D) Duplicates records
Answer: B

30. One-to-Many relationship means:
A) One record in Table A has one in Table B
B) One record in Table A relates to many in Table B
C) All records are independent
D) Data is stored multiple times
Answer: B

---

⚙️ Advanced Features

31. What is a macro in Access?
A) A large database
B) A data type
C) A tool to automate tasks
D) A form layout
Answer: C

32. Which object stores reusable VBA code?
A) Table
B) Module
C) Form
D) Report
Answer: B

33. A lookup field allows:
A) Data encryption
B) Data from another table to appear in a list
C) Importing data
D) Printing queries
Answer: B

34. What is Compact and Repair used for?
A) Format text
B) Fix and shrink database file
C) Export data
D) Create reports
Answer: B

35. What is the purpose of a switchboard?
A) Import/export data
B) Navigate database functions
C) Format text
D) Animate forms
Answer: B

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📤 Import/Export

36. You can import data into Access from:
A) Excel
B) Text files
C) SQL Server
D) All of the above
Answer: D

37. To export a report as PDF, use:
A) External Data tab
B) File → Save As
C) File → Export → Create PDF/XPS
D) Format tab
Answer: C

38. Which format is NOT available for export?
A) Excel
B) Word
C) HTML
D) JPG
Answer: D

39. Which wizard helps with data import?
A) Form Wizard
B) Relationship Wizard
C) Import Wizard
D) Macro Wizard
Answer: C

40. Linked tables are used when:
A) Creating forms
B) Connecting to external data
C) Filtering records
D) Printing summaries
Answer: B

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🔐 Security and Sharing

41. What does encrypting a database do?
A) Deletes data
B) Prevents saving
C) Protects it with a password
D) Converts it to read-only
Answer: C

42. How do you restrict user access to forms?
A) Use relationships
B) Assign user-level permissions
C) Set queries
D) Use reports
Answer: B

43. To protect data integrity, use:
A) Table linking
B) Input masks
C) Referential integrity
D) Reports
Answer: C

44. Microsoft Access can work with which database engine by default?
A) SQL Server
B) MySQL
C) Jet/ACE
D) Oracle
Answer: C

45. The Navigation Pane in Access shows:
A) Formulas
B) All objects in the database
C) Recent files
D) Design options
Answer: B

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🧠 Miscellaneous

46. The default view when creating a new table is:
A) Design View
B) Datasheet View
C) Form View
D) Report View
Answer: B

47. Which ribbon tab includes the “Relationships” button?
A) File
B) Create
C) Database Tools
D) Home
Answer: C

48. How many primary keys can a table have?
A) One
B) Two
C) Unlimited
D) None
Answer: A

49. What does the “*” symbol mean in a query?
A) Add
B) Select all fields
C) Primary key
D) Count
Answer: B

50. Which Access tool helps find duplicate records?
A) Find Wizard
B) Duplicate Query Wizard
C) Filter Wizard
D) Macro Tool
Answer: B

Here are 50 more MCQs based on Microsoft Access, covering intermediate and advanced topics including macros, expressions, forms, reports, relationships, and best practices.

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✅ Microsoft Access – Additional 50 Multiple Choice Questions

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1. Which of the following is used to perform an action automatically in Access?
A) Table
B) Query
C) Macro
D) Report
Answer: C

2. In Access, what is the purpose of the Expression Builder?
A) Write SQL code
B) Create macros
C) Assist in writing formulas and expressions
D) Design forms
Answer: C

3. Which Access object provides a user-friendly interface for data entry?
A) Report
B) Table
C) Form
D) Macro
Answer: C

4. The default field size for Short Text is:
A) 255
B) 100
C) 50
D) 25
Answer: A

5. You can enforce referential integrity in:
A) Query Design
B) Table View
C) Relationship Window
D) Form Design
Answer: C

6. What is a module in Access?
A) A table object
B) A collection of VBA procedures
C) A type of query
D) A form property
Answer: B

7. Which command is used to protect a database with a password?
A) Encrypt with Password
B) Lock Database
C) Set Security
D) File > Hide Tables
Answer: A

8. What does the Lookup Wizard create?
A) Auto-increment values
B) Data filters
C) Drop-down lists for fields
D) Custom reports
Answer: C

9. What is the purpose of the Report Wizard?
A) Create a form
B) Export data
C) Assist in designing a report
D) Perform data validation
Answer: C

10. What property prevents null entries in a field?
A) Caption
B) Required
C) Format
D) Index
Answer: B

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🧠 Forms & Reports

11. Which control displays values from another table in a form?
A) Textbox
B) Combo Box
C) Label
D) Option Group
Answer: B

12. In a report, a Group Header section is used to:
A) Create filters
B) Repeat the page heading
C) Group records by field
D) Link subreports
Answer: C

13. Conditional formatting in forms allows you to:
A) Filter records
B) Sort tables
C) Change control appearance based on conditions
D) Create macros
Answer: C

14. What type of form layout places all fields in a column?
A) Tabular
B) Datasheet
C) Split
D) Stacked
Answer: D

15. Which property sets default text for a field?
A) Format
B) Validation Rule
C) Default Value
D) Caption
Answer: C

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🔎 Queries & Filtering

16. Which query type changes existing data?
A) Append
B) Update
C) Delete
D) Make Table
Answer: B

17. A Make Table Query is used to:
A) Insert new records
B) Create a new table from existing data
C) Change field types
D) Link external tables
Answer: B

18. What is the purpose of a Find Duplicates Query Wizard?
A) Locate blank fields
B) Show repeated values
C) Sort data
D) Join tables
Answer: B

19. What is the output of a Summary Query?
A) Record count
B) Data export
C) Calculated results
D) New table
Answer: C

20. The “Top Values” property in queries is used to:
A) Limit record count
B) Filter nulls
C) Show highest values
D) Sort ascending
Answer: A

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⚙️ Relationships & Data Integrity

21. A One-to-One relationship means:
A) One record matches many
B) Multiple matches
C) One record matches exactly one
D) Circular relationship
Answer: C

22. Which field is used to uniquely identify a record?
A) Secondary Key
B) Foreign Key
C) Unique Field
D) Primary Key
Answer: D

23. What happens when referential integrity is violated?
A) Record is updated
B) Error message
C) Record is ignored
D) Value is set to null
Answer: B

24. How do you open the Relationship Window?
A) View > Tables
B) Database Tools > Relationships
C) Home > Design
D) External Data > Links
Answer: B

25. Which object is required to enforce data integrity between tables?
A) Form
B) Report
C) Query
D) Primary and foreign keys
Answer: D

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🔐 Advanced Features & Settings

26. Which tool lets you copy formatting from one control to another?
A) Format Painter
B) Copy Tool
C) Transfer Macro
D) Design Replicator
Answer: A

27. Which object runs a sequence of actions automatically?
A) Macro
B) Report
C) Query
D) Relationship
Answer: A

28. To create a backup of your database, use:
A) File > Save As > Back Up Database
B) Compact & Repair
C) File > Export
D) Database Tools > Backup
Answer: A

29. What is used to restrict a field to accept only certain values?
A) Format
B) Validation Rule
C) Caption
D) Lookup Wizard
Answer: B

30. What does a Split Form display?
A) Two reports
B) Two tables
C) Form and datasheet view together
D) Multiple databases
Answer: C

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📊 Import, Export, and Integration

31. What file formats can be imported into Access?
A) Excel
B) CSV
C) XML
D) All of the above
Answer: D

32. How do you link Access with Excel?
A) Use Import Wizard
B) Use Macros
C) Use Linked Table Manager
D) Use Report Wizard
Answer: C

33. Data exported from Access to Excel can be opened with:
A) Notepad
B) Excel only
C) PowerPoint
D) Word
Answer: B

34. Which of the following formats is best for data exchange?
A) .txt
B) .docx
C) .pptx
D) .accdb
Answer: A

35. Linked tables in Access:
A) Duplicate data
B) Connect to external sources without importing
C) Must be encrypted
D) Use hidden fields
Answer: B

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🛠️ General Operations

36. Which tab shows all database objects in Access?
A) File
B) Design
C) Navigation Pane
D) Create
Answer: C

37. The Compact & Repair feature is found under:
A) File > Info
B) View > Layout
C) Home > Data
D) External Data
Answer: A

38. What’s the maximum length of a Short Text field?
A) 64
B) 128
C) 255
D) 512
Answer: C

39. What is the function of the Totals row in a query?
A) Sort records
B) Apply filters
C) Perform aggregate functions like Sum, Avg
D) Create relationships
Answer: C

40. A calculated field in a query uses:
A) VBA
B) Expressions
C) SQL Code
D) Macros
Answer: B

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📚 Best Practices and Optimization

41. Which practice improves database performance?
A) Normalization
B) Using Memo fields only
C) Disabling relationships
D) Avoiding indexes
Answer: A

42. What is database normalization?
A) Exporting data
B) Organizing data to reduce redundancy
C) Creating forms
D) Sorting reports
Answer: B

43. To find a specific record, use:
A) Report
B) Form Design
C) Search bar in datasheet
D) Table properties
Answer: C

44. Which property helps display readable field names?
A) Format
B) Caption
C) Validation Rule
D) Index
Answer: B

45. What is an Index used for?
A) Filtering
B) Navigation
C) Speeding up search and sort
D) Creating queries
Answer: C

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🔚 Miscellaneous

46. Which shortcut key saves a record?
A) Ctrl + C
B) F5
C) Shift + Enter
D) Shift + Tab
Answer: C

47. Which is a default sort order in Access?
A) Descending
B) Manual
C) Ascending
D) Grouped
Answer: C

48. What happens when you delete a field in Design View?
A) Data is archived
B) Nothing happens
C) Field and its data are removed
D) Only format changes
Answer: C

49. A bound control in a form:
A) Links to a field in a table
B) Is read-only
C) Has no source
D) Is static
Answer: A

50. To navigate between records on a form, use:
A) File menu
B) Record navigation buttons
C) Tab key
D) Report view
Answer: B

Here are 50 MCQs based on the full forms of common computer fundamentals and related acronyms used in basic computer knowledge:

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✅ 50 MCQs on Full Forms of Computer Fundamentals

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1. What does CPU stand for?
A) Central Programming Unit
B) Central Processing Unit
C) Computer Processing Unit
D) Central Performance Unit
Answer: B

2. RAM stands for:
A) Read Access Memory
B) Random Access Memory
C) Run Access Memory
D) Readily Available Memory
Answer: B

3. What is the full form of ROM?
A) Read Only Memory
B) Run Operating Memory
C) Read Operating Module
D) Random Operating Memory
Answer: A

4. What does USB stand for?
A) Universal Serial Bus
B) United Serial Bus
C) Universal Storage Block
D) Uniform Serial Bus
Answer: A

5. What is the full form of HTTP?
A) HyperText Transfer Protocol
B) HyperText Transmission Protocol
C) Hyper Terminal Transfer Protocol
D) HyperText Transfer Program
Answer: A

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6. The full form of URL is:
A) Uniform Resource Locator
B) Universal Resource Locator
C) Unified Resource Locator
D) Uniform Registration Locator
Answer: A

7. What does DNS stand for?
A) Domain Name System
B) Domain Number System
C) Digital Network System
D) Domain Network Service
Answer: A

8. FTP stands for:
A) File Transfer Protocol
B) Fast Transfer Program
C) File Transmission Protocol
D) File Transport Program
Answer: A

9. What does GUI stand for?
A) General User Interface
B) Graphical User Interface
C) Graphics Utility Interface
D) General Utility Interface
Answer: B

10. IDE means:
A) Integrated Development Environment
B) Internal Data Entry
C) Integrated Data Entry
D) Internal Development Environment
Answer: A

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11. The full form of PDF is:
A) Portable Document Format
B) Printable Document Format
C) Personal Data Format
D) Portable Data File
Answer: A

12. What does SSD stand for?
A) Solid State Drive
B) Static Storage Device
C) Solid Static Disk
D) Static State Device
Answer: A

13. What is the full form of VGA?
A) Video Graphics Array
B) Visual Graphics Array
C) Video General Array
D) Visual General Array
Answer: A

14. BIOS stands for:
A) Basic Input Output System
B) Binary Input Output System
C) Basic Internet Operating System
D) Binary Internet Operating System
Answer: A

15. What does IP mean?
A) Internet Protocol
B) Internal Program
C) Internet Process
D) Internal Protocol
Answer: A

---

16. What is the full form of HTTP?
A) HyperText Transfer Protocol
B) Hyper Transfer Text Protocol
C) HyperText Transmission Protocol
D) Hyper Transfer Transmission Protocol
Answer: A

17. The full form of LAN is:
A) Local Area Network
B) Long Area Network
C) Large Area Network
D) Linked Area Network
Answer: A

18. What does WAN stand for?
A) Wide Area Network
B) Wireless Area Network
C) Wide Access Network
D) Wireless Access Network
Answer: A

19. What is the full form of URL?
A) Uniform Resource Locator
B) Universal Resource Locator
C) Unified Resource Locator
D) Uniform Registration Locator
Answer: A

20. The full form of JPEG is:
A) Joint Photographic Experts Group
B) Joint Photo Expert Group
C) Joint Photographic Expert Guide
D) Joint Photo Experts Guide
Answer: A

---

21. PDF stands for:
A) Portable Document Format
B) Printable Document Format
C) Personal Document File
D) Portable Data Format
Answer: A

22. What does DPI stand for?
A) Dots Per Inch
B) Data Per Inch
C) Dot Print Index
D) Data Print Information
Answer: A

23. Which of the following is the full form of XML?
A) Extensible Markup Language
B) Executable Markup Language
C) Extensible Modeling Language
D) Executable Modeling Language
Answer: A

24. The full form of CSS is:
A) Cascading Style Sheets
B) Computer Style Sheets
C) Cascading System Style
D) Computer System Style
Answer: A

25. The full form of SQL is:
A) Structured Query Language
B) Sequential Query Language
C) Simple Query Language
D) Standard Query Language
Answer: A

---

26. Which of these stands for the Central Processing Unit?
A) CPU
B) GPU
C) RAM
D) ROM
Answer: A

27. What is GPU?
A) Graphics Processing Unit
B) General Processing Unit
C) Graphical Program Utility
D) Graphics Program Unit
Answer: A

28. The full form of HDMI is:
A) High Definition Multimedia Interface
B) High Data Multimedia Interface
C) High Definition Multiple Interface
D) High Data Multiple Interface
Answer: A

29. The full form of OCR is:
A) Optical Character Recognition
B) Optical Code Reader
C) Optical Character Reader
D) Optical Code Recognition
Answer: A

30. What does DOS stand for?
A) Disk Operating System
B) Data Operating System
C) Disk Output System
D) Data Output System
Answer: A

---

31. What does BIOS do?
A) Basic Input Output System initializes hardware during booting
B) Provides graphical interface
C) Controls network traffic
D) Stores data permanently
Answer: A

32. The full form of CAD is:
A) Computer Aided Design
B) Computer Automated Design
C) Computer Aided Drawing
D) Computer Automatic Design
Answer: A

33. What does VPN stand for?
A) Virtual Private Network
B) Variable Private Network
C) Virtual Public Network
D) Variable Public Network
Answer: A

34. Which of the following is the full form of URL?
A) Uniform Resource Locator
B) Universal Resource Locator
C) Uniform Registration Locator
D) Universal Registration Locator
Answer: A

35. The full form of CAPTCHA is:
A) Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart
B) Computer Automated Public Test to Check Humans and Automation
C) Completely Automated Public Test to Check Humans and Automation
D) Computer Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart
Answer: A

---

36. What is the full form of ISP?
A) Internet Service Provider
B) Internal Service Provider
C) Internet System Provider
D) Internal System Provider
Answer: A

37. The full form of HTTP is:
A) HyperText Transfer Protocol
B) HyperText Transmission Protocol
C) Hyper Terminal Transfer Protocol
D) HyperText Transfer Program
Answer: A

38. What does IP address mean?
A) Internet Protocol Address
B) Internal Process Address
C) Internet Program Address
D) Internal Protocol Address
Answer: A

39. What is the full form of SMTP?
A) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
B) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
C) Secure Mail Transfer Protocol
D) Secure Message Transfer Protocol
Answer: A

40. The full form of SSL is:
A) Secure Sockets Layer
B) Secure System Layer
C) Secure Socket Link
D) Secure System Link
Answer: A

---

41. What is FTP used for?
A) File Transfer Protocol
B) Fast Transfer Protocol
C) File Transmission Program
D) File Transport Program
Answer: A

42. The full form of HTML is:
A) HyperText Markup Language
B) HyperText Machine Language
C) HyperText Modeling Language
D) HyperText Making Language
Answer: A

43. The full form of AI is:
A) Artificial Intelligence
B) Automatic Intelligence
C) Automated Intelligence
D) Artificial Integration
Answer: A

44. What does URL stand for?
A) Uniform Resource Locator
B) Unified Resource Locator
C) Universal Resource Locator
D) Uniform Registration Locator
Answer: A

45. The full form of PDF is:
A) Portable Document Format
B) Printable Document Format
C) Personal Document Format
D) Portable Data File
Answer: A

---

46. The full form of DOS is:
A) Disk Operating System
B) Data Operating System
C) Disk Output System
D) Data Output System
Answer: A

47. The full form of CSS is:
A) Cascading Style Sheets
B) Computer Style Sheets
C) Cascading System Style
D) Computer System Style
Answer: A

48. The full form of LAN is:
A) Local Area Network
B) Large Area Network
C) Long Area Network
D) Linked Area Network
Answer: A

49. The full form of URL is:
A) Uniform Resource Locator
B) Universal Resource Locator
C) Unified Resource Locator
D) Uniform Registration Locator
Answer: A

50. What does VPN stand for?
A) Virtual Private Network
B) Variable Private Network
C) Virtual Public Network
D) Variable Public Network
Answer: A

Here are 50 more MCQs focused on full forms of computer fundamentals and related acronyms to further deepen your understanding:

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50 Additional MCQs on Full Forms of Computer Fundamentals

---

1. What does HTTP stand for?
A) HyperText Transfer Protocol
B) Hyper Terminal Transfer Protocol
C) HyperText Transmission Program
D) HyperText Transport Protocol
Answer: A

2. The full form of HTTPS is:
A) HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure
B) Hyper Transfer Text Protocol Secure
C) HyperText Transmission Protocol Secure
D) Hyper Transfer Text Program Secure
Answer: A

3. What does IP stand for?
A) Internet Protocol
B) Internal Program
C) Internet Process
D) Internal Protocol
Answer: A

4. The full form of ISP is:
A) Internet Service Provider
B) Internal Service Provider
C) Internet System Provider
D) Internal System Provider
Answer: A

5. What is the full form of PDF?
A) Portable Document Format
B) Printable Document Format
C) Personal Document Format
D) Portable Data Format
Answer: A

---

6. What does AI stand for in computing?
A) Artificial Intelligence
B) Automated Integration
C) Automated Interface
D) Artificial Integration
Answer: A

7. The full form of GUI is:
A) Graphical User Interface
B) General User Interface
C) Graphics Utility Interface
D) General Utility Interface
Answer: A

8. What does URL stand for?
A) Uniform Resource Locator
B) Universal Resource Locator
C) Unified Resource Locator
D) Uniform Registration Locator
Answer: A

9. The full form of RAM is:
A) Random Access Memory
B) Read Access Memory
C) Run Access Memory
D) Readily Available Memory
Answer: A

10. What does ROM stand for?
A) Read Only Memory
B) Random Operating Memory
C) Run Operating Module
D) Read Operating Module
Answer: A

---

11. What is the full form of DNS?
A) Domain Name System
B) Domain Number System
C) Digital Network System
D) Domain Network Service
Answer: A

12. The full form of LAN is:
A) Local Area Network
B) Large Area Network
C) Long Area Network
D) Linked Area Network
Answer: A

13. WAN stands for:
A) Wide Area Network
B) Wireless Area Network
C) Wide Access Network
D) Wireless Access Network
Answer: A

14. The full form of SSD is:
A) Solid State Drive
B) Static Storage Device
C) Solid Static Disk
D) Static State Device
Answer: A

15. What does CPU mean?
A) Central Processing Unit
B) Computer Processing Unit
C) Central Programming Unit
D) Central Performance Unit
Answer: A

---

16. GPU stands for:
A) Graphics Processing Unit
B) General Processing Unit
C) Graphical Program Utility
D) Graphics Program Unit
Answer: A

17. The full form of HTTP is:
A) HyperText Transfer Protocol
B) HyperText Transmission Protocol
C) Hyper Terminal Transfer Protocol
D) HyperText Transfer Program
Answer: A

18. HTTPS means:
A) HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure
B) Hyper Transfer Text Protocol Secure
C) HyperText Transmission Protocol Secure
D) Hyper Transfer Text Program Secure
Answer: A

19. The full form of FTP is:
A) File Transfer Protocol
B) Fast Transfer Program
C) File Transmission Protocol
D) File Transport Program
Answer: A

20. What does SMTP stand for?
A) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
B) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
C) Secure Mail Transfer Protocol
D) Secure Message Transfer Protocol
Answer: A

---

21. The full form of SSL is:
A) Secure Sockets Layer
B) Secure System Layer
C) Secure Socket Link
D) Secure System Link
Answer: A

22. What is the full form of URL?
A) Uniform Resource Locator
B) Unified Resource Locator
C) Universal Resource Locator
D) Uniform Registration Locator
Answer: A

23. The full form of OCR is:
A) Optical Character Recognition
B) Optical Code Reader
C) Optical Character Reader
D) Optical Code Recognition
Answer: A

24. BIOS stands for:
A) Basic Input Output System
B) Binary Input Output System
C) Basic Internet Operating System
D) Binary Internet Operating System
Answer: A

25. What does IDE stand for?
A) Integrated Development Environment
B) Internal Data Entry
C) Integrated Data Entry
D) Internal Development Environment
Answer: A

---

26. What is the full form of CAD?
A) Computer Aided Design
B) Computer Automated Design
C) Computer Aided Drawing
D) Computer Automatic Design
Answer: A

27. The full form of URL is:
A) Uniform Resource Locator
B) Universal Resource Locator
C) Unified Resource Locator
D) Uniform Registration Locator
Answer: A

28. The full form of DPI is:
A) Dots Per Inch
B) Data Per Inch
C) Dot Print Index
D) Data Print Information
Answer: A

29. What is the full form of XML?
A) Extensible Markup Language
B) Executable Markup Language
C) Extensible Modeling Language
D) Executable Modeling Language
Answer: A

30. CSS stands for:
A) Cascading Style Sheets
B) Computer Style Sheets
C) Cascading System Style
D) Computer System Style
Answer: A

---

31. The full form of SQL is:
A) Structured Query Language
B) Sequential Query Language
C) Simple Query Language
D) Standard Query Language
Answer: A

32. The full form of HDMI is:
A) High Definition Multimedia Interface
B) High Data Multimedia Interface
C) High Definition Multiple Interface
D) High Data Multiple Interface
Answer: A

33. What does VPN stand for?
A) Virtual Private Network
B) Variable Private Network
C) Virtual Public Network
D) Variable Public Network
Answer: A

34. What is DOS?
A) Disk Operating System
B) Data Operating System
C) Disk Output System
D) Data Output System
Answer: A

35. The full form of CAPTCHA is:
A) Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart
B) Computer Automated Public Test to Check Humans and Automation
C) Completely Automated Public Test to Check Humans and Automation
D) Computer Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart
Answer: A

---

36. What does IP address stand for?
A) Internet Protocol Address
B) Internal Process Address
C) Internet Program Address
D) Internal Protocol Address
Answer: A

37. What is the full form of AI?
A) Artificial Intelligence
B) Automatic Intelligence
C) Automated Intelligence
D) Artificial Integration
Answer: A

38. The full form of PNG is:
A) Portable Network Graphics
B) Public Network Graphics
C) Private Network Graphics
D) Portable Network Guide
Answer: A

39. What does ISP stand for?
A) Internet Service Provider
B) Internal Service Provider
C) Internet System Provider
D) Internal System Provider
Answer: A

40. What is the full form of Wi-Fi?
A) Wireless Fidelity
B) Wireless Fiber
C) Wired Fidelity
D) Wired Fiber
Answer: A

---

41. What does URL stand for?
A) Uniform Resource Locator
B) Unified Resource Locator
C) Universal Resource Locator
D) Uniform Registration Locator
Answer: A

42. The full form of AI is:
A) Artificial Intelligence
B) Automated Interface
C) Automated Integration
D) Artificial Integration
Answer: A

43. What is HTTP?
A) HyperText Transfer Protocol
B) HyperText Transmission Protocol
C) Hyper Terminal Transfer Protocol
D) HyperText Transfer Program
Answer: A

44. What is the full form of CSV?
A) Comma Separated Values
B) Comma Standard Values
C) Colon Separated Values
D) Colon Standard Values
Answer: A

45. The full form of PDF is:
A) Portable Document Format
B) Printable Document Format
C) Personal Document Format
D) Portable Data Format
Answer: A

---

46. The full form of PNG is:
A) Portable Network Graphics
B) Public Network Graphics
C) Private Network Graphics
D) Portable Network Guide
Answer: A

47. What does LAN stand for?
A) Local Area Network
B) Large Area Network
C) Long Area Network
D) Linked Area Network
Answer: A

48. The full form of URL is:
A) Uniform Resource Locator
B) Universal Resource Locator
C) Unified Resource Locator
D) Uniform Registration Locator
Answer: A

49. What does SSH stand for?
A) Secure Shell
B) Secure Socket Handler
C) Secure System Handler
D) Secure Shell Handler
Answer: A

50. The full form of XML is:
A) Extensible Markup Language
B) Executable Markup Language
C) Extensible Modeling Language
D) Executable Modeling Language
Answer: A

Here are 50 MCQs based on Tally ERP 9, covering basics, features, accounting concepts, and functionalities:

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50 MCQs on Tally ERP 9

---

1. What does ERP stand for in Tally ERP 9?
A) Enterprise Resource Planning
B) Electronic Resource Planning
C) Enterprise Record Processing
D) Electronic Record Planning
Answer: A

2. Which company developed Tally ERP 9?
A) Microsoft
B) Tally Solutions Pvt. Ltd.
C) Oracle
D) SAP
Answer: B

3. Tally ERP 9 is primarily used for:
A) Graphic Designing
B) Accounting and Inventory Management
C) Web Development
D) Data Analysis
Answer: B

4. What type of software is Tally ERP 9?
A) Operating System
B) Accounting Software
C) Database Management System
D) Programming Language
Answer: B

5. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Tally ERP 9?
A) Payroll Management
B) Inventory Management
C) Video Editing
D) Taxation Management
Answer: C

---

6. In Tally ERP 9, what is a Ledger?
A) Summary of all transactions for an account
B) A report of all company data
C) A list of employees
D) A record of product sales
Answer: A

7. What does GST stand for in Tally ERP 9 context?
A) General Sales Tax
B) Goods and Services Tax
C) Government Service Tax
D) General Service Tax
Answer: B

8. Which feature in Tally allows you to track stock quantities?
A) Payroll
B) Inventory Management
C) Banking
D) Purchase Order
Answer: B

9. What is a Voucher in Tally ERP 9?
A) A document to record financial transactions
B) A report of employee attendance
C) A list of customers
D) A software license
Answer: A

10. Which type of Voucher is used to record sales in Tally?
A) Payment Voucher
B) Receipt Voucher
C) Sales Voucher
D) Journal Voucher
Answer: C

---

11. Which of the following is used for recording purchase transactions?
A) Purchase Voucher
B) Sales Voucher
C) Receipt Voucher
D) Payment Voucher
Answer: A

12. What is the default company in Tally ERP 9?
A) Tally Solutions Pvt Ltd
B) ABC Company
C) No company by default, user creates one
D) Demo Company
Answer: C

13. In Tally ERP 9, which report shows financial position?
A) Trial Balance
B) Balance Sheet
C) Cash Flow Statement
D) Profit & Loss Account
Answer: B

14. What is the shortcut key to create a new company in Tally?
A) Alt + C
B) Alt + F3
C) Ctrl + N
D) Alt + F1
Answer: B

15. Which type of voucher is used to record a bank deposit?
A) Receipt Voucher
B) Payment Voucher
C) Contra Voucher
D) Journal Voucher
Answer: A

---

16. Which of the following is NOT a Voucher type in Tally ERP 9?
A) Payment Voucher
B) Journal Voucher
C) Contra Voucher
D) Export Voucher
Answer: D

17. What is the function of the ‘Reconciliation’ feature in Tally?
A) To match company data with bank statements
B) To print reports
C) To generate invoices
D) To create budgets
Answer: A

18. Which of the following is used to record money transfer between cash and bank in Tally?
A) Payment Voucher
B) Receipt Voucher
C) Contra Voucher
D) Sales Voucher
Answer: C

19. What does Tally ERP 9 use for data storage?
A) Cloud Storage
B) XML Files
C) Database files stored locally
D) Excel sheets
Answer: C

20. Which report helps to verify the accuracy of ledger accounts?
A) Balance Sheet
B) Trial Balance
C) Cash Flow Statement
D) Stock Summary
Answer: B

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21. What is the shortcut key to alter ledger accounts in Tally?
A) Alt + A
B) Alt + E
C) Ctrl + A
D) Alt + L
Answer: B

22. Which report in Tally shows the summary of all ledgers?
A) Ledger Report
B) Trial Balance
C) Day Book
D) Balance Sheet
Answer: B

23. What does the term ‘Inventory Valuation’ refer to in Tally?
A) Calculating the value of stock on hand
B) Listing all customers
C) Recording bank transactions
D) Managing employee salary
Answer: A

24. In Tally, what is a ‘Cost Centre’ used for?
A) To track expenses and income by department
B) To create new companies
C) To manage bank details
D) To maintain supplier records
Answer: A

25. Which module in Tally ERP 9 handles payroll?
A) Inventory
B) Banking
C) Payroll
D) Statutory Compliance
Answer: C

---

26. How do you enable GST in Tally ERP 9?
A) Through Company Features
B) Through Gateway of Tally
C) Through Inventory Features
D) Through Payroll Features
Answer: A

27. Which tax types are supported by Tally ERP 9?
A) GST, VAT, TDS
B) Only GST
C) Only VAT
D) None
Answer: A

28. What is TDS in Tally?
A) Tax Deducted at Source
B) Total Deducted Salary
C) Tax Deposit Scheme
D) Tax Due Statement
Answer: A

29. What is the shortcut key to display the Ledger report in Tally?
A) Alt + L
B) Alt + D
C) Alt + R
D) Alt + V
Answer: A

30. What is a ‘Group’ in Tally ERP 9?
A) A collection of similar ledger accounts
B) A user group
C) A product category
D) A tax category
Answer: A

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31. What is ‘Multi-Currency’ feature in Tally ERP 9?
A) Support for multiple currency transactions
B) Feature for multi-language support
C) Feature for multi-user support
D) Feature for multi-company support
Answer: A

32. Which of the following is NOT a default Group in Tally?
A) Sundry Debtors
B) Fixed Assets
C) Customer Group
D) Current Liabilities
Answer: C

33. How do you create a ledger in Tally ERP 9?
A) Through Accounting Vouchers
B) Through Gateway of Tally → Accounts Info → Ledgers
C) Through Inventory Info
D) Through Payroll Info
Answer: B

34. Which voucher type is used for recording expenses?
A) Payment Voucher
B) Receipt Voucher
C) Journal Voucher
D) Contra Voucher
Answer: A

35. What is the purpose of ‘Backup’ in Tally ERP 9?
A) To save data safely
B) To create reports
C) To print invoices
D) To generate vouchers
Answer: A

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36. What does ‘Day Book’ in Tally show?
A) List of all transactions on a particular day
B) Ledger summary
C) Inventory summary
D) Payroll summary
Answer: A

37. Which report shows sales and purchase orders in Tally?
A) Stock Summary
B) Order Book
C) Day Book
D) Trial Balance
Answer: B

38. How to pass an opening balance entry in Tally?
A) Through Journal Voucher
B) Through Opening Balance feature during company creation
C) Through Payment Voucher
D) Through Receipt Voucher
Answer: B

39. What does the ‘Alter’ option do in Tally?
A) Modify existing data
B) Create new data
C) Delete data
D) Backup data
Answer: A

40. What type of accounting does Tally ERP 9 support?
A) Single-entry and Double-entry accounting
B) Single-entry only
C) Double-entry only
D) None of these
Answer: C

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41. What is ‘Voucher Class’ used for in Tally?
A) To automate voucher entry with predefined values
B) To classify companies
C) To categorize products
D) To manage users
Answer: A

42. What is ‘Cost Category’ in Tally?
A) A way to group multiple cost centres
B) A ledger group
C) A product group
D) A tax group
Answer: A

43. Which feature helps to track credit limits for parties in Tally?
A) Credit Limits Setup
B) Cost Centre
C) Inventory Valuation
D) VAT Setup
Answer: A

44. The shortcut key to print a report in Tally is:
A) Alt + P
B) Ctrl + P
C) Alt + F5
D) Ctrl + S
Answer: A

45. Which of the following is NOT a default report in Tally ERP 9?
A) Balance Sheet
B) Profit & Loss Account
C) Employee Performance Report
D) Trial Balance
Answer: C

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46. What does ‘Inventory Configuration’ allow you to do?
A) Set stock valuation methods and stock behaviors
B) Set employee salaries
C) Set user permissions
D) Set tax rates
Answer: A

47. Which of the following is a type of stock valuation method in Tally?
A) FIFO
B) LIFO
C) Both A and B
D) None of these
Answer: C

48. What is the default currency symbol in Tally ERP 9?
A) $
B) ₹
C) £
D) €
Answer: B

49. How can you activate VAT in Tally ERP 9?
A) Through Company Features → Statutory & Taxation → Enable VAT
B) Through Inventory Features
C) Through Payroll Features
D) Through Banking Features
Answer: A

50. Which report shows details of outstanding receivables?
A) Sundry Debtors Report
B) Sundry Creditors Report
C) Trial Balance
D) Cash Flow Statement
Answer: A

Here are 50 more MCQs on Tally ERP 9, covering advanced features, shortcuts, and practical usage:

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50 Additional MCQs on Tally ERP 9

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1. What is the shortcut key to create a new ledger in Tally?
A) Alt + L
B) Alt + C
C) Ctrl + L
D) Ctrl + C
Answer: B

2. How do you enable multi-currency in Tally ERP 9?
A) Gateway of Tally → F11 Features → Accounting Features
B) Gateway of Tally → F3 Company Info
C) Gateway of Tally → F12 Configuration
D) Gateway of Tally → F9 Inventory Vouchers
Answer: A

3. Which of the following voucher types is used to correct entries?
A) Journal Voucher
B) Payment Voucher
C) Receipt Voucher
D) Contra Voucher
Answer: A

4. What is the maximum number of companies you can create in Tally ERP 9?
A) 5
B) 10
C) Unlimited
D) 50
Answer: C

5. Which key opens the Calculator while entering numbers in Tally?
A) F12
B) F1
C) Alt + C
D) F2
Answer: C

---

6. The default voucher type to record cash receipt is:
A) Receipt Voucher
B) Payment Voucher
C) Journal Voucher
D) Contra Voucher
Answer: A

7. What is the function of ‘Split Voucher’ in Tally ERP 9?
A) To enter multiple transactions in one voucher
B) To divide ledger accounts
C) To split company data
D) To backup data
Answer: A

8. Which report in Tally shows the summary of all transactions in a day?
A) Day Book
B) Trial Balance
C) Ledger Report
D) Balance Sheet
Answer: A

9. In Tally, which feature allows users to control access rights?
A) Security Control
B) User Management
C) Access Management
D) Audit Control
Answer: B

10. The shortcut key to switch between companies is:
A) Ctrl + F3
B) Alt + F3
C) Ctrl + F2
D) Alt + F2
Answer: A

---

11. What does ‘Remote Access’ in Tally allow?
A) Access company data from different locations
B) Remote backup of data
C) Remote printing of reports
D) Remote control of software
Answer: A

12. Which of the following is NOT a stock valuation method available in Tally ERP 9?
A) Average Cost
B) FIFO
C) LIFO
D) Standard Cost
Answer: D

13. Which report displays party-wise outstanding balances?
A) Outstanding Report
B) Ledger Report
C) Day Book
D) Trial Balance
Answer: A

14. What is the purpose of ‘Tally Audit’?
A) To detect errors and inconsistencies in data
B) To print financial statements
C) To manage payroll
D) To create backups
Answer: A

15. Which type of report can be used to see the details of a ledger account?
A) Ledger Report
B) Trial Balance
C) Balance Sheet
D) Day Book
Answer: A

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16. Which shortcut key is used to delete a voucher in Tally ERP 9?
A) Alt + D
B) Ctrl + D
C) Delete
D) Ctrl + Del
Answer: A

17. How is the ‘Opening Balance’ entered for a ledger?
A) During ledger creation
B) Through Journal Voucher
C) Through Purchase Voucher
D) Through Payment Voucher
Answer: A

18. What does the term ‘Inventory Ageing’ mean in Tally?
A) Duration items have been in stock
B) Duration of company existence
C) Age of ledger accounts
D) Age of employees
Answer: A

19. Which report shows all unpaid bills?
A) Outstanding Payables
B) Outstanding Receivables
C) Day Book
D) Trial Balance
Answer: A

20. What is ‘Cost Centre’ classification useful for?
A) Tracking expenses by department or project
B) Tracking sales by region
C) Tracking employee attendance
D) Tracking inventory location
Answer: A

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21. Which type of voucher is used for recording bank withdrawals?
A) Payment Voucher
B) Receipt Voucher
C) Contra Voucher
D) Journal Voucher
Answer: A

22. Which key is used to open Calculator in Tally while entering values?
A) Alt + C
B) F12
C) Ctrl + C
D) Alt + F12
Answer: A

23. The ‘Gateway of Tally’ is:
A) The main menu of Tally ERP 9
B) A report for gateways
C) A security feature
D) A type of voucher
Answer: A

24. Which feature helps to import data from Excel to Tally?
A) ODBC Connectivity
B) Data Synchronization
C) Export Data
D) Data Backup
Answer: A

25. How do you print a report in Tally?
A) Press Alt + P
B) Press Ctrl + P
C) Use F12
D) Use F9
Answer: A

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26. Which of the following is a type of Cost Category in Tally?
A) Department
B) Region
C) Project
D) Both A and C
Answer: D

27. What does the ‘Reversal’ feature do in Tally ERP 9?
A) Automatically reverses journal entries on a specified date
B) Reverses inventory stock levels
C) Reverses payroll payments
D) Deletes company data
Answer: A

28. Which report is used to check stock quantities and values?
A) Stock Summary
B) Ledger Report
C) Day Book
D) Profit & Loss Statement
Answer: A

29. What is the use of ‘Bill-wise Details’ in Tally?
A) To manage credit and debit bills against parties
B) To create purchase orders
C) To generate salary slips
D) To backup data
Answer: A

30. Which shortcut key is used to quit Tally?
A) Alt + F4
B) Ctrl + Q
C) Ctrl + Alt + Q
D) Ctrl + F4
Answer: A

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31. In Tally, what does the ‘Voucher Numbering’ feature allow?
A) Assign unique numbers to vouchers automatically
B) Assign numbers to invoices manually
C) Assign serial numbers to employees
D) Assign product codes
Answer: A

32. Which option allows you to change the display mode in Tally reports?
A) F12: Configure
B) F11: Features
C) Alt + D
D) Ctrl + D
Answer: A

33. What type of report is ‘Trial Balance’?
A) A summary of ledger balances
B) A list of all invoices
C) A payroll report
D) Inventory details
Answer: A

34. What does the ‘Audit Trail’ feature in Tally do?
A) Tracks all changes made to data
B) Prints audit reports
C) Exports audit data
D) Creates backups
Answer: A

35. Which module manages employee attendance and salary in Tally?
A) Payroll
B) Inventory
C) Banking
D) Accounting
Answer: A

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36. How do you activate the ‘Budgeting’ feature in Tally ERP 9?
A) F11: Features → Accounting Features
B) F12: Configuration → General
C) Gateway of Tally → Accounts Info
D) Payroll Info
Answer: A

37. What is the default date format in Tally?
A) DD-MM-YYYY
B) MM-DD-YYYY
C) YYYY-MM-DD
D) MM/YYYY/DD
Answer: A

38. What is the use of the ‘Go To’ shortcut (Alt + G) in Tally?
A) Quickly jump to any report or voucher
B) Go to company creation screen
C) Go to print menu
D) Go to payroll module
Answer: A

39. What is the maximum number of vouchers that can be entered at a time in ‘Multi Voucher Entry’?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) Unlimited
Answer: B

40. What does the ‘Interest Calculation’ feature in Tally do?
A) Calculates interest on overdue receivables and payables
B) Calculates bank interest on loans
C) Calculates payroll interest
D) Calculates tax interest
Answer: A

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41. How is the ‘Interest Calculation’ feature enabled?
A) Through F11: Features → Statutory & Taxation
B) Through F12: Configuration → General
C) Through Payroll
D) Through Inventory Features
Answer: A

42. What is the shortcut key to create a new stock item in Tally?
A) Alt + C
B) Ctrl + C
C) Alt + S
D) Ctrl + S
Answer: A

43. Which of the following is a statutory report in Tally ERP 9?
A) GST Returns
B) Payroll Summary
C) Stock Summary
D) Day Book
Answer: A

44. What does the ‘Auto Backup’ feature in Tally do?
A) Automatically backs up data at specified intervals
B) Automatically prints reports
C) Automatically creates vouchers
D) Automatically updates software
Answer: A

45. Which report shows the company’s profitability?
A) Profit & Loss Account
B) Balance Sheet
C) Trial Balance
D) Day Book
Answer: A

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46. In Tally, what does the ‘Security Control’ feature allow?
A) Restrict access to company data
B) Encrypt data files
C) Manage backup schedules
D) Set tax rates

Answer: A

47. Which feature in Tally helps to create predefined templates for invoices?
A) Voucher Class
B) Invoice Designer
C) Voucher Type
D) Ledger Group
Answer: A

48. How can you activate multi-user mode in Tally ERP 9?
A) By purchasing a Tally License with multi-user support
B) Through Company Features
C) Through Inventory Features
D) Through Payroll Features
Answer: A

49. What is the function of the ‘Audit Log’ in Tally ERP 9?
A) Tracks all modifications made by users with time stamps
B) Creates backup automatically
C) Generates financial reports
D) Prints invoices
Answer: A

50. Which of the following file formats can Tally export reports to?
A) PDF
B) Excel
C) XML
D) All of the above
Answer: D

Here are 50 MCQs based on Financial Accounting, covering basic concepts, principles, and practical aspects:

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50 MCQs on Financial Accounting

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1. What is the primary objective of financial accounting?
A) To prepare management reports
B) To provide information to external users
C) To calculate tax liability
D) To control inventory
Answer: B

2. Which financial statement shows the financial position of a company at a specific date?
A) Income Statement
B) Balance Sheet
C) Cash Flow Statement
D) Statement of Changes in Equity
Answer: B

3. The accounting equation is:
A) Assets = Liabilities + Capital
B) Assets = Revenue + Expenses
C) Assets = Capital – Liabilities
D) Assets = Liabilities – Capital
Answer: A

4. What is ‘depreciation’?
A) Increase in asset value
B) Allocation of the cost of a tangible asset over its useful life
C) A type of expense not related to assets
D) A liability
Answer: B

5. Which account is credited when a company makes a sale on credit?
A) Accounts Receivable
B) Sales Account
C) Cash Account
D) Purchases Account
Answer: B

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6. What type of account is ‘Cash’?
A) Asset
B) Liability
C) Expense
D) Income
Answer: A

7. Which principle requires that expenses be recorded in the same period as the revenues they help generate?
A) Revenue Recognition Principle
B) Matching Principle
C) Cost Principle
D) Consistency Principle
Answer: B

8. What is ‘accrual accounting’?
A) Recognizing revenues and expenses when cash is received or paid
B) Recognizing revenues and expenses when they are incurred, regardless of cash flow
C) Only recording cash transactions
D) Ignoring liabilities
Answer: B

9. What does ‘ledger’ refer to in accounting?
A) A book of original entry
B) A book containing all accounts
C) A financial statement
D) A journal entry
Answer: B

10. Which financial statement summarizes revenues and expenses over a period?
A) Balance Sheet
B) Cash Flow Statement
C) Income Statement (Profit & Loss Account)
D) Trial Balance
Answer: C

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11. What is a ‘trial balance’?
A) A financial statement
B) A statement showing debits and credits equality
C) A ledger account
D) A journal
Answer: B

12. Which of the following is a current asset?
A) Building
B) Equipment
C) Accounts Receivable
D) Patents
Answer: C

13. What is ‘capital’?
A) The amount invested by the owner in the business
B) Total liabilities
C) Revenue earned
D) Expenses incurred
Answer: A

14. When goods are purchased on credit, which account is debited?
A) Purchases
B) Accounts Payable
C) Cash
D) Sales
Answer: A

15. What does ‘liabilities’ mean?
A) What the business owns
B) What the business owes to outsiders
C) Owner’s investment
D) Revenue earned
Answer: B

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16. The document issued by a seller to a buyer listing goods sold and amount payable is called:
A) Invoice
B) Receipt
C) Voucher
D) Purchase Order
Answer: A

17. Which of the following is not a financial statement?
A) Balance Sheet
B) Income Statement
C) Cash Flow Statement
D) General Ledger
Answer: D

18. What does ‘double-entry bookkeeping’ mean?
A) Every transaction is recorded twice
B) Every transaction affects two accounts, one debit and one credit
C) Two books of accounts are maintained
D) Accounting done twice a year
Answer: B

19. What is ‘goodwill’ in accounting?
A) A tangible asset
B) An intangible asset representing reputation and customer loyalty
C) A liability
D) An expense
Answer: B

20. What is the normal balance of an asset account?
A) Credit
B) Debit
C) Zero
D) Either debit or credit
Answer: B

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21. Which account increases on credit?
A) Asset
B) Expense
C) Liability
D) Drawing
Answer: C

22. What does ‘prepaid expense’ mean?
A) An expense paid in advance and recorded as an asset
B) An expense incurred but not paid
C) An accrued expense
D) An unpaid expense
Answer: A

23. The process of transferring journal entries to the ledger is called:
A) Posting
B) Balancing
C) Recording
D) Summarizing
Answer: A

24. Which of the following is an example of a liability account?
A) Salaries Expense
B) Accounts Payable
C) Capital
D) Equipment
Answer: B

25. The ‘matching principle’ relates to:
A) Matching assets with liabilities
B) Matching revenue with expenses in the same period
C) Matching cash with bank
D) Matching profit with cash flow
Answer: B

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26. Which account is affected when a company pays salaries?
A) Salaries Expense (Debit) and Cash/Bank (Credit)
B) Salaries Expense (Credit) and Cash/Bank (Debit)
C) Capital Account
D) Accounts Payable
Answer: A

27. What is ‘book value’?
A) Market value of an asset
B) Original cost minus accumulated depreciation
C) Cost of goods sold
D) Net income
Answer: B

28. What is ‘accounts receivable’?
A) Money owed by the company to suppliers
B) Money owed to the company by customers
C) A type of liability
D) Owner’s equity
Answer: B

29. Which of the following is a permanent account?
A) Sales
B) Purchases
C) Capital
D) Rent Expense
Answer: C

30. What is ‘liquidity’?
A) Ability to earn profit
B) Ability to meet short-term obligations
C) Ability to pay dividends
D) Ability to increase sales
Answer: B

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31. What is a ‘contra account’?
A) An account that offsets another account
B) A revenue account
C) An expense account
D) An equity account
Answer: A

32. Which of the following is NOT an example of an intangible asset?
A) Trademark
B) Patent
C) Land
D) Copyright
Answer: C

33. Which principle states that accounting methods should be applied consistently?
A) Going Concern Principle
B) Consistency Principle
C) Matching Principle
D) Conservatism Principle
Answer: B

34. What is ‘capital expenditure’?
A) Expense incurred for daily operations
B) Expense incurred to acquire or improve fixed assets
C) Revenue
D) Depreciation
Answer: B

35. Which account is credited when a company receives cash from a customer for a previous credit sale?
A) Sales
B) Accounts Receivable
C) Cash
D) Accounts Payable
Answer: B

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36. What is the purpose of a ‘journal’?
A) To record transactions in chronological order
B) To summarize account balances
C) To prepare financial statements
D) To prepare budgets
Answer: A

37. What does ‘net profit’ mean?
A) Revenue minus expenses
B) Total sales
C) Total expenses
D) Assets minus liabilities
Answer: A

38. Which of the following is a liquidity ratio?
A) Debt to Equity Ratio
B) Current Ratio
C) Return on Investment
D) Gross Profit Ratio
Answer: B

39. Which of the following is NOT included in current liabilities?
A) Accounts Payable
B) Short-term loans
C) Long-term bonds payable
D) Accrued expenses
Answer: C

40. What is the function of ‘trial balance’?
A) To check the equality of debits and credits
B) To record transactions
C) To prepare financial statements
D) To calculate taxes
Answer: A

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41. Which account type normally has a credit balance?
A) Assets
B) Liabilities
C) Expenses
D) Drawings
Answer: B

42. What does ‘dividends’ represent?
A) Expense paid to employees
B) Share of profit paid to shareholders
C) Revenue from sales
D) Increase in capital
Answer: B

43. Which financial statement shows cash inflows and outflows?
A) Balance Sheet
B) Income Statement
C) Cash Flow Statement
D) Statement of Owner’s Equity
Answer: C

44. The ‘going concern’ concept assumes that:
A) The business will continue indefinitely
B) The business will close soon
C) The business is for short term only
D) The business is owned by government
Answer: A

45. What is ‘contra entry’ in accounting?
A) An entry affecting both cash and bank accounts
B) An entry reversing a transaction
C) An entry in the journal
D) An error entry
Answer: A

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46. What does ‘capital withdrawal’ mean?
A) Owner takes money out of the business for personal use
B) Business borrows money from the bank
C) Business pays expenses
D) Business earns revenue
Answer: A

47. Which account records expenses related to electricity, rent, etc.?
A) Income Accounts
B) Expense Accounts
C) Asset Accounts
D) Liability Accounts
Answer: B

48. What is ‘accumulated depreciation’?
A) Total depreciation charged on an asset till date
B) Depreciation expense for the current year only
C) Market value of assets
D) Replacement cost of assets
Answer: A

49. What type of account is ‘Sales Return’?
A) Asset
B) Contra Revenue Account
C) Expense
D) Liability
Answer: B

50. Which accounting principle advises recording expenses and losses as soon as they are reasonably possible?
A) Matching Principle
B) Conservatism (Prudence) Principle
C) Cost Principle
D) Revenue Recognition Principle
Answer: B

Here are 50 more MCQs on Financial Accounting to deepen your practice:

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50 Additional MCQs on Financial Accounting

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51. Which financial statement reports a company’s revenues and expenses?
A) Balance Sheet
B) Income Statement
C) Statement of Cash Flows
D) Trial Balance
Answer: B

52. What is ‘owner’s equity’?
A) Total assets minus liabilities
B) Total liabilities minus assets
C) Total revenue minus expenses
D) Total cash balance
Answer: A

53. Which account increases with a debit?
A) Liability
B) Revenue
C) Expense
D) Capital
Answer: C

54. What is the primary purpose of bookkeeping?
A) Preparing financial statements
B) Recording financial transactions
C) Auditing accounts
D) Tax planning
Answer: B

55. What does ‘posting’ refer to in accounting?
A) Writing journal entries
B) Transferring entries from journal to ledger
C) Preparing trial balance
D) Creating financial statements
Answer: B

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56. What is a ‘liquidity ratio’ used to measure?
A) Profitability
B) Ability to meet short-term obligations
C) Market share
D) Long-term solvency
Answer: B

57. Which account is credited when a business owner invests cash into the business?
A) Cash Account
B) Capital Account
C) Drawings Account
D) Revenue Account
Answer: B

58. What is ‘accrued revenue’?
A) Revenue earned but not yet received in cash
B) Revenue received in advance
C) Revenue recorded in cash basis only
D) Revenue returned by customers
Answer: A

59. Which principle assumes the business will operate indefinitely?
A) Going Concern Principle
B) Matching Principle
C) Cost Principle
D) Conservatism Principle
Answer: A

60. What type of account is ‘accumulated depreciation’?
A) Asset
B) Liability
C) Contra asset
D) Expense
Answer: C

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61. When goods are sold for cash, which accounts are affected?
A) Cash (Debit), Sales (Credit)
B) Accounts Receivable (Debit), Sales (Credit)
C) Cash (Credit), Sales (Debit)
D) Sales (Debit), Cash (Credit)
Answer: A

62. Which accounting concept states that revenue should only be recognized when earned?
A) Matching Principle
B) Revenue Recognition Principle
C) Consistency Principle
D) Conservatism Principle
Answer: B

63. What is ‘cost of goods sold’?
A) The purchase price of goods sold during the period
B) The selling price of goods
C) Total expenses of the company
D) Gross profit
Answer: A

64. Which account shows the cumulative amount of money owed to creditors?
A) Accounts Receivable
B) Accounts Payable
C) Capital
D) Drawings
Answer: B

65. What is the ‘normal balance’ side of a liability account?
A) Debit
B) Credit
C) Both debit and credit
D) Zero balance
Answer: B

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66. What does the ‘trial balance’ help identify?
A) Errors in financial statements
B) Whether total debits equal total credits
C) Profitability of the business
D) Cash flow position
Answer: B

67. Which account type normally has a debit balance?
A) Liability
B) Revenue
C) Expense
D) Capital
Answer: C

68. What does the ‘conservatism principle’ recommend?
A) Overstate assets and income
B) Record expenses and liabilities as soon as possible but revenues only when assured
C) Ignore liabilities
D) Always use market values for assets
Answer: B

69. Which of the following is NOT an example of a current asset?
A) Cash
B) Accounts Receivable
C) Land
D) Inventory
Answer: C

70. What is a ‘fiscal year’?
A) Calendar year
B) The 12-month accounting period used by a business
C) Financial forecast
D) Tax return period
Answer: B

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71. What does ‘amortization’ refer to?
A) Depreciation of tangible assets
B) Allocation of cost of intangible assets over their useful life
C) Accumulation of reserves
D) Increase in asset value
Answer: B

72. Which document is used to record the purchase of goods on credit?
A) Invoice
B) Receipt
C) Voucher
D) Purchase Order
Answer: A

73. Which financial statement summarizes the sources and uses of cash?
A) Income Statement
B) Balance Sheet
C) Cash Flow Statement
D) Statement of Retained Earnings
Answer: C

74. What is the ‘matching principle’?
A) Recognize expenses in the same period as related revenues
B) Match assets with liabilities
C) Match cash inflows with outflows
D) Match revenues with dividends
Answer: A

75. Which account is debited when a company pays off a loan?
A) Loan Account
B) Cash Account
C) Expense Account
D) Capital Account
Answer: A

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76. What is ‘capital expenditure’?
A) Cost for daily business operations
B) Money spent to acquire or improve fixed assets
C) Interest on loans
D) Rent payments
Answer: B

77. Which of the following is NOT a current liability?
A) Accounts Payable
B) Bank Overdraft
C) Long-term Loan
D) Accrued Expenses
Answer: C

78. What does ‘net income’ represent?
A) Total revenue
B) Total expenses
C) Revenue minus expenses
D) Assets minus liabilities
Answer: C

79. What is the accounting term for money owed by customers?
A) Accounts Payable
B) Accounts Receivable
C) Notes Payable
D) Capital
Answer: B

80. Which of the following is NOT recorded in the books of accounts?
A) Cash transactions
B) Credit transactions
C) Estimated future sales
D) Accrued expenses
Answer: C

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81. Which account type is ‘owner’s drawings’?
A) Asset
B) Expense
C) Contra capital
D) Revenue
Answer: C

82. Which financial statement shows changes in equity during a period?
A) Income Statement
B) Balance Sheet
C) Statement of Owner’s Equity
D) Cash Flow Statement
Answer: C

83. What is the term for the amount a business owes its suppliers?
A) Accounts Receivable
B) Accounts Payable
C) Loans
D) Capital
Answer: B

84. When a business receives cash in advance for services to be performed later, which account is credited?
A) Revenue
B) Unearned Revenue (Liability)
C) Accounts Receivable
D) Expense
Answer: B

85. What is the purpose of ‘closing entries’?
A) To transfer balances of temporary accounts to permanent accounts
B) To record daily transactions
C) To correct errors in accounts
D) To prepare trial balance
Answer: A

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86. Which account is increased by a credit entry?
A) Asset
B) Expense
C) Revenue
D) Drawing
Answer: C

87. What is ‘bookkeeping’?
A) Auditing financial records
B) Recording financial transactions
C) Preparing financial statements
D) Analyzing financial data
Answer: B

88. What does ‘cost principle’ mean?
A) Assets should be recorded at their current market value
B) Assets should be recorded at their historical cost
C) Assets should be recorded at replacement cost
D) Assets should be recorded at estimated value
Answer: B

89. What is ‘dividend’?
A) Expense paid to employees
B) Profit distributed to shareholders
C) Cost of sales
D) Capital invested by owner
Answer: B

90. Which account records the purchase of supplies?
A) Supplies Expense
B) Supplies Inventory (Asset)
C) Purchases
D) Accounts Payable
Answer: B

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91. What is ‘cash basis accounting’?
A) Recording revenues and expenses when incurred
B) Recording revenues and expenses only when cash is received or paid
C) Recording only cash transactions
D) Ignoring accounts receivable and payable
Answer: B

92. Which financial statement would you prepare first?
A) Balance Sheet
B) Income Statement
C) Cash Flow Statement
D) Statement of Changes in Equity
Answer: B

93. What is the purpose of ‘adjusting entries’?
A) To update accounts before financial statements are prepared
B) To correct errors
C) To record cash transactions
D) To close accounts
Answer: A

94. What is ‘capital stock’?
A) Money borrowed by a company
B) Owner’s investment in a corporation
C) Company’s liability
D) Expense account
Answer: B

95. What type of account is ‘sales’?
A) Asset
B) Liability
C) Revenue
D) Expense
Answer: C

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96. What does ‘accounts payable’ represent?
A) Money owed by customers
B) Money owed to suppliers
C) Capital invested by owner
D) Revenue earned
Answer: B

97. What is a ‘fixed asset’?
A) Asset held for short term use
B) Asset used in business operations for a long period
C) Inventory held for resale
D) Accounts receivable
Answer: B

98. Which account type normally has a debit balance?
A) Revenue
B) Liability
C) Expense
D) Capital
Answer: C

99. What is ‘revenue recognition principle’?
A) Revenue is recognized when cash is received
B) Revenue is recognized when earned regardless of cash receipt
C) Revenue is recognized when expenses are paid
D) Revenue is recognized when invoices are sent
Answer: B

100. Which financial statement shows the financial position of a company on a particular date?
A) Income Statement
B) Cash Flow Statement
C) Balance Sheet
D) Statement of Retained Earnings
Answer: C

Here are 50 MCQs based on CorelDRAW to help you test your knowledge of this popular vector graphic design software:

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50 MCQs on CorelDRAW

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1. What type of software is CorelDRAW?
A) Word Processor
B) Vector Graphics Editor
C) Spreadsheet Software
D) Database Management Software
Answer: B

2. Which file format is the default saving format for CorelDRAW?
A) .cdr
B) .pdf
C) .doc
D) .ai
Answer: A

3. What is the purpose of the ‘Bezier Tool’ in CorelDRAW?
A) To create straight lines only
B) To create freehand drawings
C) To create precise curved lines
D) To fill objects with color
Answer: C

4. Which tool is used to select and move objects in CorelDRAW?
A) Pick Tool
B) Shape Tool
C) Crop Tool
D) Zoom Tool
Answer: A

5. What is the function of the ‘Shape Tool’ in CorelDRAW?
A) To select objects
B) To edit the shape of objects by manipulating nodes
C) To draw shapes
D) To fill objects with gradients
Answer: B

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6. How can you convert text into curves in CorelDRAW?
A) Right-click on text and select ‘Convert to Curves’
B) Use the Text Tool
C) Use the Pick Tool
D) Use the Crop Tool
Answer: A

7. What does the ‘Fill Tool’ do in CorelDRAW?
A) Changes the outline color
B) Fills an object with color, pattern, or gradient
C) Deletes objects
D) Resizes objects
Answer: B

8. What keyboard shortcut is used to undo an action in CorelDRAW?
A) Ctrl + Z
B) Ctrl + Y
C) Ctrl + X
D) Ctrl + C
Answer: A

9. Which color model is primarily used for print design in CorelDRAW?
A) RGB
B) CMYK
C) HSL
D) HEX
Answer: B

10. What is the ‘Outline Pen Tool’ used for?
A) To create outlines around objects and adjust their thickness and style
B) To fill objects
C) To draw freehand lines
D) To delete outlines
Answer: A

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11. Which feature allows you to align objects relative to each other?
A) Crop Tool
B) Align and Distribute
C) Zoom Tool
D) Pick Tool
Answer: B

12. What does ‘node editing’ allow you to do in CorelDRAW?
A) Create new objects
B) Edit the individual points of an object’s shape
C) Fill objects with color
D) Group objects
Answer: B

13. Which file format is best suited for exporting vector graphics from CorelDRAW?
A) .bmp
B) .jpg
C) .eps
D) .gif
Answer: C

14. What is the use of the ‘Interactive Blend Tool’?
A) To blend colors inside a single object
B) To blend two or more objects smoothly
C) To crop images
D) To draw shapes
Answer: B

15. Which CorelDRAW tool is used to create basic shapes like rectangles and ellipses?
A) Pick Tool
B) Shape Tool
C) Rectangle and Ellipse Tool
D) Pen Tool
Answer: C

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16. How do you group multiple objects in CorelDRAW?
A) Select objects and press Ctrl + G
B) Use the Shape Tool
C) Right-click and select Ungroup
D) Use the Crop Tool
Answer: A

17. What does the ‘Transparency Tool’ do?
A) Makes objects invisible
B) Adjusts the transparency level of an object
C) Changes object color
D) Deletes objects
Answer: B

18. What is the function of the ‘Text Tool’?
A) To draw shapes
B) To insert and edit text
C) To fill colors
D) To resize objects
Answer: B

19. Which menu would you use to apply special effects like drop shadows in CorelDRAW?
A) File
B) Effects
C) Edit
D) Tools
Answer: B

20. Which tool allows you to cut out or trim parts of objects?
A) Crop Tool
B) Zoom Tool
C) Pick Tool
D) Outline Pen Tool
Answer: A

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21. What is the purpose of the ‘Eyedropper Tool’?
A) To create new objects
B) To pick and apply colors from an object or image
C) To zoom into objects
D) To crop images
Answer: B

22. How can you zoom in on your workspace quickly?
A) Ctrl + Zoom Tool
B) Use mouse scroll wheel or Ctrl + Spacebar + Drag
C) Ctrl + Z
D) Use the Pick Tool
Answer: B

23. What does the ‘Shape Tool’ allow you to do with curves?
A) Change curve direction and smoothness
B) Fill curves with colors
C) Delete curves
D) Zoom curves
Answer: A

24. Which CorelDRAW feature helps in creating repeating patterns?
A) PowerClip
B) Pattern Fill
C) Envelope Tool
D) Interactive Fill Tool
Answer: B

25. What does the ‘PowerClip’ feature allow you to do?
A) Group objects
B) Place one object inside the shape of another
C) Crop images
D) Create gradients
Answer: B

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26. Which tool is used for freehand drawing in CorelDRAW?
A) Pen Tool
B) Bezier Tool
C) Freehand Tool
D) Shape Tool
Answer: C

27. What is the ‘Pen Tool’ primarily used for?
A) Creating straight and curved vector paths with precision
B) Drawing rectangles
C) Filling objects
D) Editing shapes
Answer: A

28. How do you lock an object to prevent accidental editing?
A) Select object and press Ctrl + L
B) Use the Lock Object command in the Object Manager
C) Delete object
D) Use Crop Tool
Answer: B

29. Which shortcut key is used to duplicate an object?
A) Ctrl + D
B) Ctrl + C
C) Ctrl + V
D) Ctrl + X
Answer: A

30. What does the ‘Envelope Tool’ allow you to do?
A) Warp and distort the shape of an object by adjusting its bounding box
B) Fill objects with gradients
C) Create outlines
D) Crop images
Answer: A

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31. Which file format supports transparency when exporting from CorelDRAW?
A) .jpg
B) .png
C) .bmp
D) .tiff
Answer: B

32. What is the ‘Contour Tool’ used for?
A) To create parallel outlines inside or outside an object
B) To erase objects
C) To fill objects
D) To merge objects
Answer: A

33. What feature in CorelDRAW allows you to create symmetrical designs?
A) Mirror
B) PowerClip
C) Envelope Tool
D) Blend Tool
Answer: A

34. Which palette in CorelDRAW shows color options?
A) Object Manager
B) Color Palette
C) Toolbox
D) Status Bar
Answer: B

35. What does ‘Ctrl + Q’ do in CorelDRAW?
A) Undo
B) Convert object to curves
C) Group objects
D) Save file
Answer: B

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36. Which tool is used to smooth or simplify nodes?
A) Shape Tool
B) Smudge Brush Tool
C) Crop Tool
D) Interactive Fill Tool
Answer: B

37. How can you rotate an object in CorelDRAW?
A) Using Pick Tool and dragging the rotation handles
B) Using Crop Tool
C) Using Zoom Tool
D) Using Shape Tool
Answer: A

38. What is the purpose of the ‘Mesh Fill Tool’?
A) To create complex color gradients using a mesh grid
B) To fill objects with patterns
C) To create outlines
D) To crop objects
Answer: A

39. Which panel in CorelDRAW helps manage layers and objects?
A) Toolbox
B) Object Manager
C) Color Palette
D) Property Bar
Answer: B

40. What does the ‘Knife Tool’ do?
A) Cuts objects into separate parts
B) Erases parts of objects
C) Creates shadows
D) Adds outlines
Answer: A

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41. How do you combine multiple objects into a single shape?
A) Using Group command
B) Using Weld command
C) Using Duplicate command
D) Using Crop command
Answer: B

42. What is the use of the ‘Zoom Tool’?
A) To enlarge or reduce the view of the document
B) To crop images
C) To draw shapes
D) To fill objects
Answer: A

43. Which CorelDRAW tool lets you create multi-line text?
A) Artistic Text Tool
B) Paragraph Text Tool
C) Freehand Tool
D) Shape Tool
Answer: B

44. What does ‘snapping’ mean in CorelDRAW?
A) Aligning objects automatically to guides or other objects
B) Deleting objects
C) Grouping objects
D) Zooming into objects
Answer: A

45. Which effect allows you to add realistic shadows to objects?
A) Drop Shadow Tool
B) Contour Tool
C) Blend Tool
D) Envelope Tool
Answer: A

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46. What does the ‘Interactive Fill Tool’ allow you to do?
A) Fill objects with solid colors only
B) Fill objects with gradients or patterns interactively
C) Move objects
D) Crop objects
Answer: B

47. Which CorelDRAW tool is used for resizing objects proportionally?
A) Shape Tool
B) Pick Tool with Shift key pressed
C) Crop Tool
D) Zoom Tool
Answer: B

48. How can you save a CorelDRAW project as a PDF?
A) File > Save As > Select PDF
B) File > Export > Select PDF
C) Edit > Export > PDF
D) View > Export > PDF
Answer: B

49. What does the ‘Interactive Drop Shadow Tool’ do?
A) Adds a shadow that you can drag and adjust dynamically
B) Removes shadows from objects
C) Creates a new object
D) Crops images
Answer: A

50. Which panel shows the properties of the selected object?
A) Property Bar
B) Toolbox
C) Color Palette
D) Status Bar
Answer: A

Here are 50 more MCQs based on CorelDRAW for you:

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50 More MCQs on CorelDRAW

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51. What is the default unit of measurement in CorelDRAW?
A) Inches
B) Centimeters
C) Pixels
D) Points
Answer: A

52. How do you create a perfect circle in CorelDRAW?
A) Use Ellipse Tool and drag while holding Shift
B) Use Ellipse Tool and drag while holding Ctrl
C) Use Rectangle Tool and drag while holding Ctrl
D) Use Pen Tool
Answer: B

53. Which CorelDRAW feature helps to create 3D effects?
A) Extrude Tool
B) Blend Tool
C) Envelope Tool
D) Contour Tool
Answer: A

54. What does the ‘Smart Fill Tool’ do?
A) Fills enclosed areas with color, creating new objects if necessary
B) Edits shapes
C) Deletes objects
D) Crops objects
Answer: A

55. How can you apply a uniform outline thickness to an object?
A) Use the Outline Pen dialog box
B) Use the Fill Tool
C) Use the Shape Tool
D) Use the Crop Tool
Answer: A

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56. What shortcut key is used to duplicate an object by dragging?
A) Ctrl + Drag
B) Alt + Drag
C) Shift + Drag
D) Ctrl + Alt + Drag
Answer: B

57. Which tool allows you to create curved lines by placing anchor points?
A) Pen Tool
B) Freehand Tool
C) Bezier Tool
D) Brush Tool
Answer: C

58. What does the ‘Object Manager’ docker do?
A) Shows all objects and layers in a document for easier management
B) Changes color palettes
C) Zooms into objects
D) Applies effects
Answer: A

59. What is a ‘PowerClip’ container in CorelDRAW?
A) A shape that holds other objects inside it
B) A type of group
C) A text box
D) A color fill
Answer: A

60. Which file format supports both vector and raster graphics and is commonly used for exporting logos?
A) JPEG
B) PNG
C) PDF
D) BMP
Answer: C

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61. How do you convert a bitmap image to vector in CorelDRAW?
A) Use Trace Bitmap feature
B) Use Fill Tool
C) Use Crop Tool
D) Use Zoom Tool
Answer: A

62. Which CorelDRAW tool helps to create complex shapes by combining simpler ones?
A) Weld
B) Crop
C) Zoom
D) Blend
Answer: A

63. How can you lock the aspect ratio when resizing an object?
A) Hold Shift while resizing
B) Hold Ctrl while resizing
C) Hold Alt while resizing
D) Hold Ctrl + Shift while resizing
Answer: B

64. What does the ‘Interactive Distortion Tool’ allow you to do?
A) Twist or distort objects interactively
B) Change colors
C) Resize objects
D) Create outlines
Answer: A

65. Which CorelDRAW tool is useful for creating logos, icons, and line art?
A) Vector Tools (Pen, Bezier, Shape)
B) Text Tool
C) Crop Tool
D) Fill Tool
Answer: A

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66. What is the purpose of the ‘Guidelines’ in CorelDRAW?
A) To help align objects precisely
B) To fill objects
C) To crop images
D) To group objects
Answer: A

67. How can you convert a curve back to a straight line?
A) Using the Shape Tool to delete nodes or change node type
B) Using Crop Tool
C) Using Fill Tool
D) Using PowerClip
Answer: A

68. Which tool allows you to create a shadow effect that follows an object’s shape?
A) Drop Shadow Tool
B) Contour Tool
C) Blend Tool
D) Envelope Tool
Answer: A

69. How do you open the Object Properties docker?
A) Window > Dockers > Object Properties
B) File > Properties
C) Edit > Object Properties
D) Tools > Options
Answer: A

70. Which option allows you to hide objects temporarily?
A) Right-click and choose Hide
B) Ctrl + H
C) Use the Object Manager docker
D) All of the above
Answer: D

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71. What does the ‘Virtual Segment Delete Tool’ do?
A) Deletes segments of curves between intersections
B) Deletes entire objects
C) Creates new nodes
D) Zooms into objects
Answer: A

72. How can you apply a gradient fill?
A) Use Interactive Fill Tool and choose Fountain Fill
B) Use Outline Pen Tool
C) Use Crop Tool
D) Use PowerClip
Answer: A

73. What is the function of the ‘Knife Tool’?
A) Cuts objects into two or more parts
B) Erases objects
C) Resizes objects
D) Fills objects
Answer: A

74. What does the ‘Blend Tool’ do?
A) Creates smooth transitions between two objects
B) Fills objects with patterns
C) Cuts objects
D) Creates shadows
Answer: A

75. How do you create multiple copies of an object in a row?
A) Use Step and Repeat command
B) Use Group command
C) Use Crop Tool
D) Use Fill Tool
Answer: A

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76. Which tool allows you to create text along a path?
A) Text Tool with Path option
B) Artistic Text Tool
C) Paragraph Text Tool
D) Pick Tool
Answer: A

77. What is the purpose of the ‘Interactive Contour Tool’?
A) Creates concentric shapes inside or outside an object
B) Cuts objects
C) Fills objects
D) Edits text
Answer: A

78. Which option helps to export CorelDRAW artwork to be used on the web?
A) Export as PNG or JPEG
B) Export as CDR
C) Save as PDF
D) Save as AI
Answer: A

79. How can you change the document page size in CorelDRAW?
A) Layout > Page Setup
B) File > Page Setup
C) Edit > Preferences
D) View > Page Size
Answer: A

80. Which panel shows the layers in your document?
A) Object Manager
B) Property Bar
C) Toolbox
D) Color Palette
Answer: A

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81. What does the ‘Envelope Tool’ help you do?
A) Distort or warp an object by dragging its bounding box nodes
B) Fill an object
C) Crop an object
D) Rotate an object
Answer: A

82. How can you apply effects to multiple objects at once?
A) Group them first and then apply the effect
B) Select each object and apply separately
C) Use Crop Tool
D) Use Fill Tool
Answer: A

83. What is a ‘Bezier Curve’?
A) A mathematically defined smooth curve created with control points
B) A freehand drawing tool
C) A shape tool
D) A fill type
Answer: A

84. Which shortcut key resets the zoom to 100%?
A) F4
B) F5
C) Ctrl + 1
D) Ctrl + 0
Answer: C

85. How can you change the default color palette?
A) Tools > Color Management
B) Window > Color Palettes > Load Palette
C) Edit > Preferences
D) File > Color Options
Answer: B

---

86. Which tool is best for cleaning up and refining nodes?
A) Shape Tool
B) Smudge Brush Tool
C) Crop Tool
D) Knife Tool
Answer: B

87. What is the use of the ‘Interactive Mesh Fill Tool’?
A) Allows complex gradient fills by controlling mesh nodes and colors
B) To crop images
C) To cut objects
D) To create outlines
Answer: A

88. Which CorelDRAW option allows you to work on multiple pages?
A) Multi-page document support
B) Layers
C) Grouping
D) PowerClip
Answer: A

89. How do you access the ‘Docker’ windows in CorelDRAW?
A) Window > Dockers
B) File > Options
C) Tools > Docker
D) View > Dockers
Answer: A

90. Which tool would you use to draw a polygon?
A) Polygon Tool
B) Rectangle Tool
C) Ellipse Tool
D) Bezier Tool
Answer: A

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91. What is the purpose of the ‘Knife Tool’?
A) To split objects into parts
B) To resize objects
C) To fill objects with color
D) To create text
Answer: A

92. How can you create a mirror image of an object?
A) Use Mirror option in the Property Bar
B) Use Crop Tool
C) Use Fill Tool
D) Use Envelope Tool
Answer: A

93. What type of graphics does CorelDRAW primarily handle?
A) Vector graphics
B) Raster graphics only
C) Both vector and raster but primarily vector
D) Audio files
Answer: C

94. How do you change the default font in CorelDRAW?
A) Tools > Options > Text
B) File > Properties
C) Edit > Preferences
D) Window > Fonts
Answer: A

95. Which tool is used to create smooth freehand curves?
A) Artistic Media Tool
B) Bezier Tool
C) Pen Tool
D) Freehand Tool
Answer: A

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96. How do you import an image into CorelDRAW?
A) File > Import
B) Edit > Import
C) View > Import
D) Tools > Import
Answer: A

97. What does the ‘Shape Tool’ icon look like?
A) An arrow pointing to a node
B) A paintbrush
C) A knife
D) A magnifying glass
Answer: A

98. Which panel helps you control object transparency?
A) Interactive Transparency Tool
B) Outline Pen Tool
C) Fill Tool
D) Crop Tool
Answer: A

99. How do you save a CorelDRAW document for future editing?
A) Save as .cdr format
B) Export as .jpg
C) Export as .pdf
D) Export as .png
Answer: A

100. Which tool can be used to draw straight lines or polygons?
A) Polyline Tool
B) Pen Tool
C) Rectangle Tool
D) Ellipse Tool
Answer: A

Here are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on Adobe Photoshop:

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50 MCQs on Adobe Photoshop

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1. What is the default file format for saving Photoshop projects with layers?
A) JPEG
B) PNG
C) PSD
D) GIF
Answer: C

2. Which tool is used to select a rectangular area?
A) Lasso Tool
B) Marquee Tool
C) Magic Wand Tool
D) Crop Tool
Answer: B

3. What does the ‘Clone Stamp Tool’ do?
A) Deletes pixels
B) Copies pixels from one part of an image to another
C) Adds text
D) Crops images
Answer: B

4. Which Photoshop panel shows all the layers?
A) Properties Panel
B) Layers Panel
C) History Panel
D) Color Panel
Answer: B

5. How can you quickly zoom in on an image?
A) Ctrl + Scroll Wheel Up
B) Ctrl + Scroll Wheel Down
C) Ctrl + Alt + Z
D) Ctrl + A
Answer: A

---

6. What is the shortcut to undo the last action?
A) Ctrl + Z
B) Ctrl + Y
C) Ctrl + S
D) Ctrl + C
Answer: A

7. Which tool allows you to make freeform selections?
A) Marquee Tool
B) Lasso Tool
C) Crop Tool
D) Pen Tool
Answer: B

8. What is the function of the ‘Magic Wand Tool’?
A) Selects areas based on color similarity
B) Crops the image
C) Paints color
D) Erases background
Answer: A

9. Which feature is used to remove the background from an image?
A) Magic Eraser Tool
B) Clone Stamp Tool
C) Crop Tool
D) Brush Tool
Answer: A

10. What does the ‘Healing Brush Tool’ do?
A) Replaces pixels with sampled pixels for retouching
B) Adds new layers
C) Crops the image
D) Selects areas
Answer: A

---

11. What is the shortcut for creating a new layer?
A) Ctrl + N
B) Ctrl + Shift + N
C) Ctrl + L
D) Ctrl + T
Answer: B

12. Which tool allows you to move selected objects or layers?
A) Move Tool
B) Pen Tool
C) Brush Tool
D) Crop Tool
Answer: A

13. How do you transform an object (resize, rotate, etc.)?
A) Ctrl + T
B) Ctrl + L
C) Ctrl + S
D) Ctrl + D
Answer: A

14. Which tool is used to paint soft edges with variable opacity?
A) Brush Tool
B) Eraser Tool
C) Pen Tool
D) Pencil Tool
Answer: A

15. What does the ‘Opacity’ setting control?
A) Transparency of a layer or brush
B) Size of the brush
C) Color intensity
D) Resolution
Answer: A

---

16. Which menu contains the ‘Levels’ adjustment?
A) Image
B) Layer
C) Select
D) Filter
Answer: A

17. How do you flatten all layers into one?
A) Layer > Flatten Image
B) Image > Flatten Layers
C) Edit > Flatten Image
D) Filter > Flatten Layers
Answer: A

18. What is a ‘Smart Object’?
A) A layer that preserves the source content with all its original characteristics
B) A raster layer
C) A text layer
D) A vector shape
Answer: A

19. Which tool is best for creating smooth vector paths?
A) Pen Tool
B) Lasso Tool
C) Brush Tool
D) Marquee Tool
Answer: A

20. How do you zoom out quickly?
A) Ctrl + Minus (-)
B) Ctrl + Plus (+)
C) Ctrl + 0
D) Ctrl + Shift + Z
Answer: A

---

21. Which Photoshop feature is used to reduce red-eye in photos?
A) Red Eye Tool
B) Healing Brush Tool
C) Magic Wand Tool
D) Clone Stamp Tool
Answer: A

22. What does the ‘Dodge Tool’ do?
A) Lightens areas of an image
B) Darkens areas of an image
C) Blurs an image
D) Sharpens an image
Answer: A

23. Which file format supports transparency in Photoshop?
A) JPEG
B) PNG
C) BMP
D) TIFF
Answer: B

24. What is the shortcut for the ‘Eyedropper Tool’?
A) I
B) E
C) B
D) P
Answer: A

25. How can you reset the Photoshop workspace to default?
A) Window > Workspace > Reset Workspace
B) Edit > Reset
C) File > Reset Workspace
D) Help > Reset
Answer: A

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26. Which panel allows you to adjust color balance?
A) Adjustments Panel
B) Layers Panel
C) Channels Panel
D) Paths Panel
Answer: A

27. What is the difference between ‘Raster’ and ‘Vector’ images?
A) Raster images are pixel-based; Vector images are path-based
B) Raster images are path-based; Vector images are pixel-based
C) Raster images support layers; Vector images do not
D) Raster images have higher resolution than vectors
Answer: A

28. Which option helps you remove unwanted objects from an image seamlessly?
A) Content-Aware Fill
B) Crop Tool
C) Magic Wand Tool
D) Paint Bucket Tool
Answer: A

29. How do you deselect a selection?
A) Ctrl + D
B) Ctrl + A
C) Ctrl + C
D) Ctrl + X
Answer: A

30. Which tool lets you paint with a pattern?
A) Pattern Stamp Tool
B) Brush Tool
C) Clone Stamp Tool
D) Eraser Tool
Answer: A

---

31. Which tool is used for removing parts of an image?
A) Eraser Tool
B) Clone Stamp Tool
C) Crop Tool
D) Lasso Tool
Answer: A

32. What is the shortcut to toggle the visibility of a layer?
A) Click the eye icon in the Layers Panel
B) Ctrl + V
C) Alt + Click on layer thumbnail
D) Shift + Click on layer thumbnail
Answer: A

33. Which adjustment layer modifies the contrast and brightness?
A) Levels
B) Hue/Saturation
C) Color Balance
D) Curves
Answer: A

34. What tool is used to create straight lines and shapes?
A) Shape Tools (Rectangle, Ellipse, etc.)
B) Brush Tool
C) Magic Wand Tool
D) Crop Tool
Answer: A

35. How do you save an image for web use?
A) File > Export > Save for Web (Legacy)
B) File > Save As > JPEG
C) File > Save As > PSD
D) File > Export > Export As TIFF
Answer: A

---

36. Which tool helps you remove noise from an image?
A) Reduce Noise filter
B) Blur Tool
C) Sharpen Tool
D) Eraser Tool
Answer: A

37. What is the function of the ‘Pen Pressure’ in Brush Settings?
A) Controls brush opacity/size based on pressure (for tablets)
B) Controls brush hardness
C) Controls brush color
D) Controls brush flow
Answer: A

38. Which tool is used for cutting a part of an image?
A) Crop Tool
B) Slice Tool
C) Lasso Tool
D) Marquee Tool
Answer: A

39. What does ‘Flatten Image’ do?
A) Merges all layers into one background layer
B) Deletes layers
C) Copies layers
D) Unlocks layers
Answer: A

40. Which panel shows the history of all actions taken?
A) History Panel
B) Layers Panel
C) Paths Panel
D) Channels Panel
Answer: A

---

41. How do you add text in Photoshop?
A) Use the Type Tool (T)
B) Use the Brush Tool
C) Use the Pen Tool
D) Use the Lasso Tool
Answer: A

42. What does the ‘Feather’ option do to a selection?
A) Softens the edges of the selection
B) Sharpens the edges of the selection
C) Changes the selection color
D) Expands the selection
Answer: A

43. What is the shortcut for the ‘Zoom Tool’?
A) Z
B) X
C) C
D) V
Answer: A

44. Which blending mode is used to darken images?
A) Multiply
B) Screen
C) Overlay
D) Difference
Answer: A

45. What does the ‘Quick Mask Mode’ allow you to do?
A) Paint a selection mask to edit selections easily
B) Crop images
C) Erase parts of an image
D) Move objects
Answer: A

---

46. How can you rotate an object precisely?
A) Use Edit > Transform > Rotate
B) Use Crop Tool
C) Use Lasso Tool
D) Use Clone Stamp Tool
Answer: A

47. Which color mode is best suited for printing?
A) CMYK
B) RGB
C) Grayscale
D) Indexed Color
Answer: A

48. What does the ‘Gaussian Blur’ filter do?
A) Blurs the image softly
B) Sharpens the image
C) Changes brightness
D) Adds noise
Answer: A

49. How can you select all pixels on a layer?
A) Ctrl + Click the layer thumbnail
B) Ctrl + A
C) Ctrl + D
D) Shift + Click
Answer: A

50. Which tool lets you create gradients?
A) Gradient Tool
B) Brush Tool
C) Eraser Tool
D) Pen Tool
Answer: A

Here are 50 more MCQs on Adobe Photoshop for you:

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50 More MCQs on Adobe Photoshop

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51. What is the shortcut to copy a selected area to a new layer?
A) Ctrl + J
B) Ctrl + C
C) Ctrl + V
D) Ctrl + X
Answer: A

52. Which tool is used to straighten a tilted image?
A) Crop Tool with Straighten option
B) Move Tool
C) Magic Wand Tool
D) Clone Stamp Tool
Answer: A

53. What does the ‘History Brush Tool’ do?
A) Paints a snapshot of the previous state over the current image
B) Erases the image
C) Adds color
D) Creates new layers
Answer: A

54. Which key temporarily switches to the Hand Tool while using other tools?
A) Spacebar
B) Ctrl
C) Alt
D) Shift
Answer: A

55. Which tool is used to create complex paths that can be converted into selections?
A) Pen Tool
B) Lasso Tool
C) Magic Wand Tool
D) Brush Tool
Answer: A

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56. How do you constrain proportions while resizing an object?
A) Hold Shift while dragging a corner handle
B) Hold Ctrl while dragging
C) Hold Alt while dragging
D) Just drag without any key
Answer: A

57. Which filter would you use to sharpen an image?
A) Unsharp Mask
B) Gaussian Blur
C) Motion Blur
D) Noise
Answer: A

58. What does the ‘Patch Tool’ do?
A) Repairs selected areas using a sample or pattern
B) Paints colors
C) Cuts an image
D) Selects objects
Answer: A

59. Which tool can you use to select areas based on brightness?
A) Magic Wand Tool
B) Crop Tool
C) Pen Tool
D) Eraser Tool
Answer: A

60. How do you save a Photoshop project as a flattened JPEG image?
A) File > Save As > JPEG
B) File > Save As > PSD
C) File > Export > PNG
D) File > Export > TIFF
Answer: A

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61. Which menu contains ‘Liquify’ filter?
A) Filter
B) Image
C) Edit
D) Layer
Answer: A

62. What does the ‘Quick Selection Tool’ do?
A) Selects areas by painting over them
B) Moves selections
C) Erases parts of an image
D) Creates paths
Answer: A

63. What is the purpose of ‘Feathering’ a selection?
A) Creates soft, blurred edges on the selection
B) Sharpens edges
C) Removes the selection
D) Converts selection to path
Answer: A

64. Which adjustment can be used to change the hue, saturation, and lightness of an image?
A) Hue/Saturation
B) Levels
C) Curves
D) Brightness/Contrast
Answer: A

65. What does the ‘Burn Tool’ do?
A) Darkens areas of an image
B) Lightens areas of an image
C) Paints color
D) Adds noise
Answer: A

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66. How can you show or hide guides?
A) Ctrl + ; (semicolon)
B) Ctrl + ‘ (apostrophe)
C) Ctrl + H
D) Ctrl + G
Answer: A

67. Which tool is used for cropping an image?
A) Crop Tool
B) Slice Tool
C) Move Tool
D) Lasso Tool
Answer: A

68. How do you merge two or more layers?
A) Select layers > Right-click > Merge Layers
B) Select layers > Copy
C) Select layers > Paste
D) Select layers > Flatten Image
Answer: A

69. What is the purpose of the ‘Layer Mask’?
A) To hide or reveal parts of a layer non-destructively
B) To create new layers
C) To merge layers
D) To add text
Answer: A

70. Which color model is used for digital displays?
A) RGB
B) CMYK
C) Grayscale
D) LAB
Answer: A

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71. What does the ‘Smudge Tool’ do?
A) Blends pixels by dragging
B) Erases pixels
C) Paints color
D) Adds noise
Answer: A

72. Which file format supports animation?
A) GIF
B) JPEG
C) PNG
D) BMP
Answer: A

73. How do you create a clipping mask?
A) Right-click a layer > Create Clipping Mask
B) Select layers > Merge Layers
C) Select layers > Copy
D) Select layers > Flatten Image
Answer: A

74. Which tool allows you to paint with a soft edge?
A) Brush Tool with hardness set low
B) Eraser Tool
C) Clone Stamp Tool
D) Pen Tool
Answer: A

75. What is the purpose of the ‘History Panel’?
A) To track and revert to previous states of the project
B) To adjust colors
C) To organize layers
D) To add text
Answer: A

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76. How can you quickly hide all panels and toolbars?
A) Press Tab
B) Press Esc
C) Press Ctrl + H
D) Press Ctrl + Shift + H
Answer: A

77. What does the ‘Pen Tool’ primarily create?
A) Paths and vector shapes
B) Paint strokes
C) Selections
D) Layers
Answer: A

78. How do you access the Preferences in Photoshop?
A) Edit > Preferences
B) File > Preferences
C) Image > Preferences
D) Layer > Preferences
Answer: A

79. Which tool is used to fill an area with color or pattern?
A) Paint Bucket Tool
B) Brush Tool
C) Clone Stamp Tool
D) Eraser Tool
Answer: A

80. What is the shortcut for ‘Deselect all’?
A) Ctrl + D
B) Ctrl + A
C) Ctrl + C
D) Ctrl + V
Answer: A

---

81. Which tool is used for making straight line selections?
A) Polygonal Lasso Tool
B) Magnetic Lasso Tool
C) Magic Wand Tool
D) Elliptical Marquee Tool
Answer: A

82. How do you change the canvas size?
A) Image > Canvas Size
B) Image > Image Size
C) Edit > Resize
D) Layer > Resize
Answer: A

83. Which option allows you to align multiple layers?
A) Select layers > Use Align buttons in Layers Panel
B) Edit > Align Layers
C) Layer > Arrange
D) File > Align
Answer: A

84. How do you convert text to a shape?
A) Right-click the text layer > Convert to Shape
B) Layer > Rasterize
C) Edit > Transform
D) Select > Convert to Shape
Answer: A

85. What is the function of the ‘Spot Healing Brush Tool’?
A) Removes blemishes and imperfections
B) Paints colors
C) Adds noise
D) Creates selections
Answer: A

---

86. Which option allows saving a Photoshop project with all layers?
A) Save as PSD
B) Save as JPEG
C) Save as PNG
D) Save as GIF
Answer: A

87. Which adjustment layer controls the overall brightness and contrast?
A) Brightness/Contrast
B) Levels
C) Curves
D) Hue/Saturation
Answer: A

88. What does the ‘Filter Gallery’ offer?
A) A variety of artistic and stylizing filters
B) Color adjustments
C) Text tools
D) Layer management
Answer: A

89. Which key do you hold to add to an existing selection?
A) Shift
B) Alt
C) Ctrl
D) Space
Answer: A

90. How do you create a new blank document?
A) File > New
B) File > Open
C) Edit > New
D) Layer > New
Answer: A

---

91. What does the ‘Liquify’ filter allow you to do?
A) Push, pull, rotate, reflect, pucker, and bloat parts of an image
B) Blur the image
C) Sharpen the image
D) Change color balance
Answer: A

92. How can you view the rulers in Photoshop?
A) Ctrl + R
B) Ctrl + T
C) Ctrl + L
D) Ctrl + H
Answer: A

93. Which panel is used to mix and adjust colors?
A) Swatches Panel
B) Layers Panel
C) Paths Panel
D) History Panel
Answer: A

94. How can you lock a layer?
A) Click the lock icon in the Layers Panel
B) Right-click > Lock Layer
C) Layer > Lock
D) Edit > Lock
Answer: A

95. What is the shortcut to hide/show extras (guides, grids)?
A) Ctrl + H
B) Ctrl + G
C) Ctrl + E
D) Ctrl + Shift + H
Answer: A

---

96. Which feature lets you align text along a path?
A) Type on a Path Tool
B) Text Tool
C) Pen Tool
D) Brush Tool
Answer: A

97. How do you change the blending mode of a layer?
A) Use the dropdown at the top of the Layers Panel
B) Edit > Blending Mode
C) Layer > Blending Mode
D) Filter > Blending Mode
Answer: A

98. What does the ‘Channels Panel’ display?
A) The color components of an image (RGB, CMYK, etc.)
B) Layers
C) Paths
D) History
Answer: A

99. Which shortcut hides all panels except the Toolbox and Options bar?
A) Shift + Tab
B) Tab
C) Ctrl + Tab
D) Ctrl + Shift + Tab
Answer: A

100. What is the shortcut for ‘Free Transform’?
A) Ctrl + T
B) Ctrl + F
C) Ctrl + E
D) Ctrl + G
Answer: A

Here are 50 MCQs on C Programming Language for you:

---

50 MCQs on C Programming Language

---

1. Who developed the C programming language?
A) Dennis Ritchie
B) Bjarne Stroustrup
C) James Gosling
D) Ken Thompson
Answer: A

2. Which of the following is the correct syntax to print “Hello, World!” in C?
A) printf("Hello, World!");
B) cout << "Hello, World!";
C) print("Hello, World!");
D) echo("Hello, World!");
Answer: A

3. What is the file extension of a C program?
A) .c
B) .cpp
C) .java
D) .py
Answer: A

4. Which header file is necessary for using printf and scanf functions?
A) stdio.h
B) conio.h
C) stdlib.h
D) string.h
Answer: A

5. What is the default return type of the main() function in C?
A) int
B) void
C) char
D) float
Answer: A

---

6. How do you declare a variable in C?
A) int x;
B) var x;
C) declare x;
D) x int;
Answer: A

7. Which of the following is NOT a valid data type in C?
A) integer
B) float
C) double
D) char
Answer: A (Because the correct keyword is int, not integer)

8. How many bytes does an int typically take in a 32-bit system?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 1
Answer: B

9. Which operator is used to access the value at the address stored in a pointer?
A) * (dereference operator)
B) & (address-of operator)
C) ->
D) .
Answer: A

10. What does & operator do in C?
A) Gives the address of a variable
B) Performs bitwise AND
C) Used for logical AND
D) Dereferences a pointer
Answer: A

---

11. Which of the following is a correct comment in C?
A) // This is a comment
B) # This is a comment
C) <!-- This is a comment -->
D) /* This is a comment */
Answer: D (Note: Both A and D are valid in C99 and later, but traditionally /* ... */ is standard)

12. What will be the output of printf("%d", 5 + '0');?
A) 53
B) 5
C) ‘0’
D) Error
Answer: A

13. Which function is used to dynamically allocate memory in C?
A) malloc()
B) alloc()
C) new()
D) calloc()
Answer: A (calloc() is also valid, but malloc() is the most common)

14. Which operator is used to combine two or more conditions?
A) &&
B) &
C) ||
D) |
Answer: A

15. How do you define a constant value in C?
A) #define PI 3.14
B) const PI = 3.14
C) constant PI = 3.14
D) var PI = 3.14
Answer: A

---

16. What is the size of a char data type in C?
A) 1 byte
B) 2 bytes
C) 4 bytes
D) Depends on the compiler
Answer: A

17. Which keyword is used to return a value from a function?
A) return
B) break
C) exit
D) goto
Answer: A

18. What will be the output of this code snippet?

cCopyEditint x = 5;
printf("%d", ++x);

A) 5
B) 6
C) Error
D) Undefined
Answer: B

19. What is the output of this expression: 3 == 3?
A) 1
B) 0
C) 3
D) Error
Answer: A

20. What is the correct way to declare a pointer to an integer?
A) int *ptr;
B) int ptr*;
C) pointer int ptr;
D) int &ptr;
Answer: A

---

21. Which of the following loops executes at least once?
A) do-while
B) while
C) for
D) none of the above
Answer: A

22. What is the keyword used to exit a loop prematurely?
A) break
B) exit
C) continue
D) stop
Answer: A

23. What is the correct syntax for a switch statement in C?
A)

cCopyEditswitch(expression) {
   case constant1: 
       // code
       break;
   default: 
       // code
}

B)

cCopyEditswitch(expression) {
   if case constant1:
       // code
}

C)

cCopyEditif switch(expression) {
   // code
}

D) None of the above
Answer: A

24. Which of the following is NOT a valid identifier name in C?
A) _var1
B) 2var
C) var_2
D) VAR
Answer: B

25. What is the output of this code?

cCopyEditprintf("%d", sizeof(int));

A) Size of int in bytes (usually 4)
B) Error
C) 0
D) Size of variable
Answer: A

---

26. Which function terminates a program immediately?
A) exit()
B) return()
C) stop()
D) terminate()
Answer: A

27. What is the scope of a variable declared inside a function?
A) Local to the function
B) Global
C) Static
D) External
Answer: A

28. Which keyword is used to declare a global variable?
A) extern
B) global
C) static
D) auto
Answer: A

29. What is the default value of an uninitialized local variable?
A) Garbage value
B) 0
C) NULL
D) Compiler error
Answer: A

30. How do you comment multiple lines in C?
A) /* ... */
B) // on each line
C) <!-- ... -->
D) Both A and B
Answer: D

---

31. What is a pointer in C?
A) A variable that stores the address of another variable
B) A variable that stores values
C) A function
D) None of the above
Answer: A

32. Which of these operators is the address-of operator?
A) &
B) *
C) %
D) @
Answer: A

33. What does the sizeof operator return?
A) Size in bytes of a data type or variable
B) Length of a string
C) Number of elements in an array
D) Memory location
Answer: A

34. What will happen if you use a dangling pointer?
A) It may cause undefined behavior
B) It works fine
C) Compiler error
D) The program will exit normally
Answer: A

35. Which function reads formatted input from the standard input?
A) scanf()
B) gets()
C) getchar()
D) fgets()
Answer: A

---

36. What does NULL pointer mean?
A) Pointer points to nothing
B) Pointer points to 0
C) Pointer points to first memory location
D) Pointer is uninitialized
Answer: A

37. Which header file is required for dynamic memory functions like malloc?
A) stdlib.h
B) stdio.h
C) string.h
D) math.h
Answer: A

38. What is the correct way to declare an array of 10 integers?
A) int arr[10];
B) int arr;
C) int arr(10);
D) array int arr[10];
Answer: A

39. Which operator is used for bitwise AND?
A) &
B) &&
C) |
D) ^
Answer: A

40. Which of the following statements is true about C?
A) C is a procedural programming language
B) C is object-oriented
C) C is a scripting language
D) C is a markup language
Answer: A

---

41. Which of the following is used to declare a function in C?
A) return_type function_name(parameters);
B) function function_name();
C) func function_name();
D) procedure function_name();
Answer: A

42. How do you call a function named add?
A) add();
B) call add();
C) run add();
D) execute add();
Answer: A

43. Which of the following is true about arrays in C?
A) Arrays are zero-indexed
B) Arrays start at 1
C) Arrays can be dynamically resized
D) Arrays can hold different data types
Answer: A

44. What is the output of this snippet?

cCopyEditchar str[] = "ABC";
printf("%c", str[1]);

A) B
B) A
C) C
D) Error
Answer: A

45. Which function is used to copy strings in C?
A) strcpy()
B) strcmp()
C) strlen()
D) strcat()
Answer: A

---

46. Which function returns the length of a string?
A) strlen()
B) strcpy()
C) strcmp()
D) strcat()
Answer: A

47. Which of the following is a logical operator in C?
A) &&
B) &
C) |
D) ^
Answer: A

48. What is the use of the continue statement?
A) Skips the rest of the loop iteration and proceeds to the next iteration
B) Exits the loop
C) Pauses the program
D) Ends the program
Answer: A

49. How do you allocate memory for an array of 5 integers dynamically?
A) int *ptr = (int*) malloc(5 * sizeof(int));
B) int ptr = malloc(5);
C) int ptr = new int[5];
D) int *ptr = malloc(5);
Answer: A

50. What is the output of this code?

cCopyEditint a = 5, b = 10;
printf("%d", a > b ? a : b);

A) 10
B) 5
C) 0
D) Error
Answer: A

Here are 50 more MCQs on C Programming Language:

---

50 Additional MCQs on C Programming Language

---

1. What is the value of a Boolean expression that is true in C?
A) 0
B) 1
C) -1
D) Any non-zero value
Answer: D

2. Which of the following is used to define a macro in C?
A) #define
B) #macro
C) #const
D) #macrodef
Answer: A

3. What does the typedef keyword do?
A) Creates a new name (alias) for an existing data type
B) Declares a variable
C) Defines a constant
D) Defines a function
Answer: A

4. Which of the following is NOT a storage class in C?
A) auto
B) register
C) private
D) static
Answer: C

5. What does the volatile keyword indicate?
A) Variable can be changed unexpectedly by external factors
B) Variable cannot be changed
C) Variable is constant
D) Variable is local
Answer: A

---

6. Which of the following is correct about an enum in C?
A) It defines a set of named integer constants
B) It is a data type that holds strings
C) It is a pointer type
D) It defines a floating-point variable
Answer: A

7. What is the output of this code?

cCopyEditint x = 10;
printf("%d", x >> 1);

A) 5
B) 20
C) 0
D) 10
Answer: A

8. Which operator is used for bitwise OR?
A) |
B) ||
C) &
D) &&
Answer: A

9. Which of the following is true about the static keyword?
A) Preserves the value of a variable between function calls
B) Defines a global variable
C) Declares a constant
D) None of the above
Answer: A

10. Which function is used to compare two strings?
A) strcmp()
B) strcpy()
C) strlen()
D) strcat()
Answer: A

---

11. What is the output of this code?

cCopyEditchar a = 'A';
printf("%d", a);

A) 65
B) A
C) Error
D) 0
Answer: A

12. Which of the following statements is true about arrays?
A) Array elements are stored in contiguous memory locations
B) Array elements can have different data types
C) Array size can be changed dynamically
D) Arrays always start from 1
Answer: A

13. Which function is used to read a single character from input?
A) getchar()
B) gets()
C) scanf()
D) fgets()
Answer: A

14. What does the extern keyword indicate?
A) The variable or function is defined outside the current file
B) Defines a local variable
C) Declares a constant
D) Marks a variable as static
Answer: A

15. What is the output of this expression: 5 && 0?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 5
D) Error
Answer: A

---

16. How do you declare a function in C that takes no arguments and returns void?
A) void func(void);
B) void func();
C) func(void);
D) void func[];
Answer: A

17. Which of the following is a correct way to comment in C99 or later?
A) // This is a comment
B) /* This is a comment */
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Answer: C

18. What will be the output of the following code?

cCopyEditint a = 5, b = 3;
printf("%d", a % b);

A) 2
B) 1
C) 0
D) 3
Answer: A

19. Which function is used to terminate a program and return control to the operating system?
A) exit()
B) quit()
C) stop()
D) return()
Answer: A

20. What is the purpose of the union keyword in C?
A) To store different data types in the same memory location
B) To declare an array
C) To define a constant
D) To create a pointer
Answer: A

---

21. Which of the following is a correct way to allocate memory dynamically?
A) ptr = malloc(sizeof(int));
B) ptr = alloc(int);
C) ptr = new int;
D) ptr = malloc(int);
Answer: A

22. Which of the following operators has the highest precedence?
A) * (multiplication)
B) + (addition)
C) && (logical AND)
D) == (equality)
Answer: A

23. How many bytes does a float typically take in C?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
Answer: B

24. What is the use of the break statement inside loops?
A) Exit the loop immediately
B) Skip current iteration
C) Continue to the next iteration
D) Stop the program
Answer: A

25. What happens if you forget to include return 0; at the end of main()?
A) Program may still run normally (depends on compiler)
B) Program will not compile
C) Runtime error
D) Infinite loop
Answer: A

---

26. What does sizeof operator return when applied to an array?
A) Total size in bytes of the array
B) Number of elements in the array
C) Size of first element only
D) Size of pointer
Answer: A

27. What will be the output of this snippet?

cCopyEditint x = 1;
printf("%d", x << 2);

A) 4
B) 8
C) 2
D) 1
Answer: B

28. Which header file is required to use the exit() function?
A) stdlib.h
B) stdio.h
C) string.h
D) math.h
Answer: A

29. Which of the following is a valid variable name in C?
A) my_var
B) 2ndVar
C) my-var
D) void
Answer: A

30. What is the output of the expression !0?
A) 1
B) 0
C) -1
D) Error
Answer: A

---

31. Which function concatenates two strings?
A) strcat()
B) strcpy()
C) strlen()
D) strcmp()
Answer: A

32. What is the result of 5 & 3?
A) 1
B) 7
C) 8
D) 0
Answer: A

33. What is the size of a pointer variable on a 64-bit system?
A) 4 bytes
B) 8 bytes
C) 2 bytes
D) Depends on the data type
Answer: B

34. Which keyword is used to declare a function that does not return any value?
A) void
B) int
C) null
D) none
Answer: A

35. What is the difference between ++i and i++?
A) ++i increments before using the value; i++ increments after
B) No difference
C) i++ increments before; ++i increments after
D) i++ decrements
Answer: A

---

36. Which function is used to allocate memory and initialize it to zero?
A) calloc()
B) malloc()
C) realloc()
D) free()
Answer: A

37. What is the output of this code?

cCopyEditint arr[] = {1, 2, 3};
printf("%d", *(arr + 1));

A) 2
B) 1
C) 3
D) Error
Answer: A

38. Which of the following statements is true about the void pointer?
A) Can hold address of any data type
B) Cannot be dereferenced directly
C) Must be typecast before dereferencing
D) All of the above
Answer: D

39. What is the output of this code?

cCopyEditprintf("%d", 10 == 10);

A) 1
B) 0
C) 10
D) Error
Answer: A

40. Which of the following is the correct way to declare a multi-dimensional array?
A) int arr[3][4];
B) int arr(3)(4);
C) int arr[3,4];
D) int arr[][];
Answer: A

---

41. What is the purpose of the register keyword?
A) Suggests the compiler to store the variable in CPU register
B) Declares a global variable
C) Declares a constant
D) Declares a static variable
Answer: A

42. What is the output of the following code?

cCopyEditprintf("%c", 65);

A) A
B) 65
C) Error
D) Null
Answer: A

43. Which statement correctly declares a pointer to a function?
A) int (*ptr)(int);
B) int ptr(int*);
C) int *ptr(int);
D) ptr int(int*);
Answer: A

44. What is the result of sizeof(char)?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
Answer: A

45. Which of the following is not a loop structure in C?
A) for
B) while
C) loop
D) do-while
Answer: C

---

46. What will be the output of the following?

cCopyEditint i = 0;
if (i = 5) {
    printf("%d", i);
}

A) 5
B) 0
C) Error
D) Undefined
Answer: A (because assignment returns the assigned value)

47. Which of the following correctly declares a pointer to a pointer?
A) int **ptr;
B) int *ptr*;
C) int ptr**;
D) int ptr*;
Answer: A

48. What is the output of the following code?

cCopyEditprintf("%d", 'A' + 1);

A) 66
B) 65
C) 67
D) Error
Answer: A

49. What is the output of this snippet?

cCopyEditint x = 5, y = 2;
printf("%d", x / y);

A) 2
B) 2.5
C) 3
D) Error
Answer: A (integer division truncates)

50. Which of the following is used to declare a structure in C?
A) struct
B) class
C) record
D) type
Answer: A

Here are 50 MCQs on C++ Programming Language:

---

50 MCQs on C++ Programming Language

---

1. Who is the creator of C++?
A) Dennis Ritchie
B) Bjarne Stroustrup
C) James Gosling
D) Guido van Rossum
Answer: B

2. Which of the following is the correct way to declare a class in C++?
A) class MyClass { };
B) class MyClass();
C) class MyClass[];
D) MyClass class { };
Answer: A

3. What is the default access modifier for members of a class in C++?
A) public
B) private
C) protected
D) None
Answer: B

4. Which operator is used to access members of a class through an object pointer?
A) . (dot)
B) -> (arrow)
C) :: (scope resolution)
D) & (address-of)
Answer: B

5. What feature of C++ allows the same function name to have different implementations?
A) Inheritance
B) Polymorphism
C) Function Overloading
D) Abstraction
Answer: C

---

6. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental data type in C++?
A) int
B) float
C) string
D) char
Answer: C

7. Which keyword is used to inherit a class in C++?
A) inherits
B) extends
C) : (colon)
D) implements
Answer: C

8. What is the output of this code?

cppCopyEditcout << 5 / 2;

A) 2
B) 2.5
C) 3
D) Error
Answer: A

9. What does the new keyword do in C++?
A) Allocates memory dynamically
B) Declares a new variable
C) Defines a new class
D) Deletes an object
Answer: A

10. Which of the following is the correct way to declare a reference variable?
A) int &ref = var;
B) int *ref = var;
C) int ref = &var;
D) int ref = var;
Answer: A

---

11. What is the purpose of the virtual keyword in C++?
A) To define a virtual function for runtime polymorphism
B) To declare a pointer
C) To declare a constant
D) To create a new class
Answer: A

12. Which of the following is a correct constructor declaration?
A) MyClass();
B) void MyClass();
C) int MyClass();
D) constructor MyClass();
Answer: A

13. What will be the output of the following code?

cppCopyEditint a = 10;
int &ref = a;
ref = 20;
cout << a;

A) 10
B) 20
C) Garbage value
D) Error
Answer: B

14. What is the scope resolution operator in C++?
A) ::
B) .
C) ->
D) &
Answer: A

15. Which feature is used to hide implementation details in C++?
A) Inheritance
B) Polymorphism
C) Encapsulation
D) Abstraction
Answer: C

---

16. Which of the following cannot be overloaded in C++?
A) Operators
B) Functions
C) Constructors
D) The scope resolution operator (::)
Answer: D

17. Which keyword is used to prevent a class from being inherited?
A) sealed
B) final
C) private
D) static
Answer: B

18. What is the size of a bool data type in C++?
A) 1 byte
B) 2 bytes
C) 4 bytes
D) Depends on compiler
Answer: A

19. Which of the following is a correct way to declare a pure virtual function?
A) virtual void func() = 0;
B) virtual void func() {};
C) void virtual func() = 0;
D) void func() = 0;
Answer: A

20. What happens if a class has at least one pure virtual function?
A) It becomes an abstract class
B) It becomes a concrete class
C) It becomes a virtual class
D) Compilation error
Answer: A

---

21. What is the output of this code?

cppCopyEditcout << sizeof(int);

A) 2 or 4 bytes depending on system
B) Always 4 bytes
C) 8 bytes
D) 1 byte
Answer: A

22. Which keyword is used to define a constant variable?
A) constant
B) const
C) final
D) immutable
Answer: B

23. What does RAII stand for in C++?
A) Resource Acquisition Is Initialization
B) Runtime Allocation Is Immediate
C) Random Access Is Important
D) None of the above
Answer: A

24. Which of the following is a valid way to declare a namespace?
A) namespace MySpace { }
B) namespace MySpace[];
C) namespace MySpace();
D) namespace MySpace;
Answer: A

25. Which of the following is true about destructors?
A) Destructors have the same name as the class with a ~ prefix
B) Destructors take parameters
C) Destructors return values
D) Destructors must be called manually
Answer: A

---

26. What is operator overloading?
A) Giving new meaning to existing operators for user-defined types
B) Overriding a function
C) Creating new operators
D) None of the above
Answer: A

27. Which of the following is the correct syntax for overloading the + operator?
A) ClassName operator+(ClassName obj);
B) void operator+(ClassName obj);
C) int operator+(ClassName obj);
D) operator+ ClassName(ClassName obj);
Answer: A

28. What is the output of the code below?

cppCopyEditint x = 10;
int* p = &x;
cout << *p;

A) 10
B) Address of x
C) Garbage value
D) Error
Answer: A

29. Which of the following is used for exception handling in C++?
A) try, catch, throw
B) try, except
C) handle, catch
D) try, throw
Answer: A

30. What will be the output?

cppCopyEditcout << (5 == 5 ? "Yes" : "No");

A) Yes
B) No
C) 1
D) 0
Answer: A

---

31. What is the default return type of main() in C++?
A) void
B) int
C) float
D) char
Answer: B

32. Which of these is a C++ container class?
A) vector
B) list
C) map
D) All of the above
Answer: D

33. What is the use of std:: prefix?
A) It specifies the standard namespace
B) It is an operator
C) It is a data type
D) It is a class name
Answer: A

34. What will be the output of this snippet?

cppCopyEditchar c = 'A';
cout << (int)c;

A) 65
B) A
C) Error
D) 0
Answer: A

35. What is the size of a pointer on a 64-bit system?
A) 4 bytes
B) 8 bytes
C) 2 bytes
D) Depends on type of pointer
Answer: B

---

36. Which header file is required to use standard input/output stream objects?
A) iostream
B) stdio.h
C) conio.h
D) fstream
Answer: A

37. How can you create a constant pointer to an integer?
A) int* const ptr;
B) const int* ptr;
C) int const * ptr;
D) const int const * ptr;
Answer: A

38. What is the output of this?

cppCopyEditint a = 5;
int b = ++a + a++;
cout << b;

A) 12
B) 11
C) 10
D) Undefined behavior
Answer: A

39. What does friend keyword do?
A) Allows a function/class to access private and protected members of another class
B) Declares a new class
C) Defines a public function
D) Creates a friend object
Answer: A

40. Which of the following supports dynamic polymorphism?
A) Virtual functions
B) Function overloading
C) Operator overloading
D) Templates
Answer: A

---

41. What is a template in C++?
A) A blueprint for creating generic classes or functions
B) A type of loop
C) A special function
D) None of the above
Answer: A

42. What is the correct syntax to declare a function template?
A) template <typename T> T func(T a);
B) template func<T>();
C) template T func(T a);
D) func template <T>();
Answer: A

43. Which operator is used to allocate memory for objects?
A) new
B) malloc
C) alloc
D) create
Answer: A

44. Which feature allows a derived class to provide a specific implementation of a function that is already defined in its base class?
A) Overriding
B) Overloading
C) Inheritance
D) Encapsulation
Answer: A

45. What will be the output of this code?

cppCopyEditcout << (true && false);

A) 0
B) 1
C) true
D) false
Answer: A

---

46. Which of the following is NOT a valid identifier in C++?
A) myVar
B) _var1
C) 1stVar
D) var_1
Answer: C

47. What is the output of the following?

cppCopyEditint x = 5;
cout << x++ << ++x;

A) 57
B) 66
C) 56
D) Undefined behavior
Answer: D

48. What is the function of the static_cast operator?
A) Performs explicit type conversion at compile time
B) Converts pointer types only
C) Performs runtime type checking
D) None of the above
Answer: A

49. Which of the following is the base class of all classes in C++?
A) Object
B) There is no universal base class in C++
C) Base
D) Root
Answer: B

50. What is the keyword to define a template class?
A) template <typename T> class ClassName { };
B) template class ClassName<T> { };
C) class template <T> ClassName { };
D) typedef template ClassName<T> { };
Answer: A

Here are 50 more MCQs on C++ Programming Language:

---

50 More MCQs on C++ Programming Language

---

51. What will be the output of this code?

cppCopyEditint a = 10, b = 20;  
cout << (a > b ? a : b);  

A) 10
B) 20
C) true
D) false
Answer: B

52. Which of the following is NOT a valid access specifier in C++?
A) public
B) private
C) protected
D) internal
Answer: D

53. How do you create an object of a class named Car?
A) Car obj;
B) object Car;
C) Car();
D) new Car obj;
Answer: A

54. What does the inline keyword suggest to the compiler?
A) Replace the function call with the function code to reduce overhead
B) Always compile the function
C) Make the function virtual
D) Prevent the function from being optimized
Answer: A

55. Which of the following keywords is used to handle exceptions in C++?
A) try, catch, throw
B) exception, catch
C) try, except
D) catch, finally
Answer: A

---

56. How many times is the destructor called for this class if two objects are created?

cppCopyEditclass Test {
public:
    ~Test() { cout << "Destructor called\n"; }
};

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Answer: C

57. What is a constructor initializer list?
A) A way to initialize member variables before constructor body executes
B) A method to call base class constructors
C) A function to initialize arrays
D) None of the above
Answer: A

58. What is the output of this code?

cppCopyEditint x = 5;  
cout << ++x << " " << x++;  

A) 5 6
B) 6 6
C) 6 7
D) 7 6
Answer: C

59. Which C++ feature allows defining multiple functions with the same name but different parameters?
A) Function overloading
B) Function overriding
C) Virtual functions
D) Templates
Answer: A

60. What keyword is used to prevent a class from being inherited in C++11 and later?
A) sealed
B) final
C) override
D) static
Answer: B

---

61. What is the difference between struct and class in C++?
A) Struct members are public by default; class members are private
B) Struct is used for data only; class can have functions
C) Structs cannot have constructors
D) There is no difference
Answer: A

62. Which of the following is true about references in C++?
A) They cannot be null
B) They can be reseated to refer to another variable
C) They occupy the same size as pointers
D) None of the above
Answer: A

63. What does the keyword mutable do?
A) Allows modification of a member even if the containing object is const
B) Marks a variable as volatile
C) Makes a variable thread-safe
D) None of the above
Answer: A

64. Which header file provides the std::string class?
A) string.h
B) cstring
C) string
D) strlib
Answer: C

65. What does the following code do?

cppCopyEditconst int *p;

A) Pointer to a constant integer (cannot modify the integer via pointer)
B) Constant pointer to an integer (cannot change the pointer)
C) Constant pointer to constant integer
D) None of the above
Answer: A

---

66. What is the purpose of the explicit keyword?
A) Prevent implicit conversions in constructors
B) Make functions inline
C) Mark virtual functions
D) None of the above
Answer: A

67. Which keyword indicates that a function cannot be overridden in derived classes?
A) final
B) override
C) virtual
D) sealed
Answer: A

68. What is the output of the following code?

cppCopyEditint a = 5;  
int b = 2;  
cout << a % b;  

A) 2
B) 1
C) 0
D) 3
Answer: B

69. Which of the following correctly defines a template class?
A) template <class T> class Box { T content; };
B) class template Box<T> { T content; };
C) template Box<class T> { T content; };
D) None of the above
Answer: A

70. How do you access a base class method from a derived class when it is overridden?
A) Using BaseClassName::method()
B) Using this->method()
C) Using super.method()
D) Using parent.method()
Answer: A

---

71. What is the difference between ++i and i++?
A) ++i increments before use; i++ increments after use
B) No difference
C) i++ increments before use; ++i increments after use
D) Both are invalid
Answer: A

72. Which of these is NOT a storage class specifier in C++?
A) auto
B) register
C) static
D) protected
Answer: D

73. What is the effect of the static keyword inside a function?
A) Variable retains its value between function calls
B) Variable is local to the function
C) Variable is global
D) Variable is constant
Answer: A

74. What is the output of the following?

cppCopyEditcout << (5 && 0);  

A) 0
B) 1
C) true
D) false
Answer: A

75. Which of the following is true for a pure virtual function?
A) Must be overridden in derived classes
B) Can have a function body
C) Makes the class abstract
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

76. Which operator is used for bitwise AND?
A) &
B) &&
C) |
D) ^
Answer: A

77. How do you specify that a function does not modify the object it belongs to?
A) By adding const after the function signature
B) By using static keyword
C) By using mutable keyword
D) By using volatile keyword
Answer: A

78. Which of the following correctly deletes dynamically allocated memory for an array?
A) delete[] ptr;
B) delete ptr;
C) free(ptr);
D) delete(ptr);
Answer: A

79. Which STL container is best suited for fast random access?
A) vector
B) list
C) set
D) map
Answer: A

80. What does the keyword typename mean inside a template?
A) Declares a generic type parameter
B) Declares a variable
C) Defines a class
D) None of the above
Answer: A

---

81. Which of the following statements is true about multiple inheritance?
A) A class can inherit from more than one base class
B) It is not allowed in C++
C) It causes compilation errors always
D) Only one base class is inherited
Answer: A

82. What is a lambda expression in C++?
A) An anonymous function object
B) A macro
C) A data type
D) A class template
Answer: A

83. Which of the following is the correct syntax for a lambda function?
A) [](){ cout << "Hello"; };
B) ()[] { cout << "Hello"; };
C) lambda [] { cout << "Hello"; };
D) lambda (){ cout << "Hello"; };
Answer: A

84. What does the keyword this point to in a class method?
A) The current object
B) The base class object
C) The function pointer
D) The derived class object
Answer: A

85. Which of the following is used to define an exception class?
A) Any class derived from std::exception
B) Any class derived from std::error
C) Only class exception
D) None of the above
Answer: A

---

86. How is a friend function declared?
A) Inside the class with friend keyword
B) Outside the class with friend keyword
C) Inside the class without friend keyword
D) None of the above
Answer: A

87. What happens if you don’t define a destructor in your class?
A) Compiler provides a default destructor
B) There is no destructor
C) Compilation error
D) Runtime error
Answer: A

88. Which operator is used to get the address of a variable?
A) &
B) *
C) ->
D) %
Answer: A

89. What will this code print?

cppCopyEditchar str[] = "Hello";  
cout << sizeof(str);  

A) 6
B) 5
C) 4
D) Error
Answer: A

90. What type of function cannot access non-static members of a class?
A) Static functions
B) Virtual functions
C) Inline functions
D) Friend functions
Answer: A

---

91. Which of these correctly overloads the assignment operator?
A) ClassName& operator=(const ClassName &obj);
B) void operator=(ClassName obj);
C) ClassName operator==(const ClassName &obj);
D) ClassName operator=(ClassName obj);
Answer: A

92. What is the size of a pointer on a 32-bit system?
A) 4 bytes
B) 8 bytes
C) 2 bytes
D) Depends on pointer type
Answer: A

93. Which STL container automatically sorts elements?
A) set
B) vector
C) list
D) deque
Answer: A

94. Which exception is thrown by std::vector::at() when accessing out of range?
A) std::out_of_range
B) std::invalid_argument
C) std::length_error
D) std::exception
Answer: A

95. How do you make a data member accessible only within the class and its derived classes?
A) protected
B) private
C) public
D) internal
Answer: A

---

96. Which of these is true about virtual destructors?
A) Prevents undefined behavior during polymorphic deletion
B) Is not allowed
C) Must be pure virtual
D) Only works with static classes
Answer: A

97. How can you prevent implicit type conversion of a constructor with one argument?
A) Use explicit keyword
B) Use const keyword
C) Use static keyword
D) Use virtual keyword
Answer: A

98. Which of these is NOT a valid loop in C++?
A) do-while
B) foreach
C) for
D) while
Answer: B

99. What keyword defines a block of code to run regardless of exception handling?
A) finally
B) catch
C) try
D) throw
Answer: A (Note: finally is NOT supported in standard C++ but often confused; the correct answer: C++ does NOT have finally, cleanup should be in destructors or RAII)

100. What is the effect of using namespace std;?
A) It imports the entire std namespace into the current scope
B) It creates a new namespace called std
C) It deletes the std namespace
D) None of the above
Answer: A

Here are 50 MCQs on C# Programming Language:

---

50 MCQs on C# Programming Language

---

1. Which of the following is the correct way to declare a variable in C#?
A) int x = 10;
B) var x = 10;
C) Both A and B
D) declare int x = 10;
Answer: C

2. What is the default access modifier for class members in C#?
A) public
B) private
C) protected
D) internal
Answer: B

3. Which keyword is used to define a method that does not return a value?
A) void
B) int
C) null
D) none
Answer: A

4. How do you create an object of a class named Car in C#?
A) Car obj = new Car();
B) Car obj = Car();
C) Car obj();
D) new Car obj;
Answer: A

5. What does static keyword signify in C#?
A) The member belongs to the class, not to any object instance
B) The member cannot be changed
C) The method cannot be overridden
D) None of the above
Answer: A

---

6. Which of the following is a correct comment in C#?
A) // This is a comment
B) /* This is a comment */
C) /// This is a documentation comment
D) All of the above
Answer: D

7. Which data type is used to store decimal values in C#?
A) int
B) float
C) decimal
D) string
Answer: C

8. What is the entry point of a C# program?
A) Main() method
B) Start() method
C) Init() method
D) Run() method
Answer: A

9. Which of these is NOT a valid loop structure in C#?
A) for
B) foreach
C) loop
D) while
Answer: C

10. What will happen if you do not handle an exception in C#?
A) Program crashes
B) Program ignores it
C) Exception is logged automatically
D) None of the above
Answer: A

---

11. How do you catch exceptions in C#?
A) Using try-catch block
B) Using handle-exception block
C) Using catch-only block
D) Using error-catch block
Answer: A

12. What is a delegate in C#?
A) A type-safe function pointer
B) A variable type
C) A collection class
D) None of the above
Answer: A

13. Which of the following is the correct way to declare a delegate?
A) delegate void MyDelegate();
B) delegate MyDelegate void();
C) void delegate MyDelegate();
D) delegate() void MyDelegate;
Answer: A

14. What is the use of the using statement?
A) To import namespaces
B) To ensure proper disposal of resources
C) To define aliases
D) All of the above
Answer: D

15. Which of the following is NOT a value type in C#?
A) int
B) float
C) string
D) bool
Answer: C

---

16. How do you declare a nullable integer in C#?
A) int? x;
B) nullable int x;
C) int x = null;
D) nullable<int> x;
Answer: A

17. What does the const keyword do?
A) Declares a constant value that cannot be changed
B) Declares a variable
C) Declares a static member
D) Declares a volatile variable
Answer: A

18. How do you inherit a class in C#?
A) class Derived : Base { }
B) class Derived inherits Base { }
C) class Derived extends Base { }
D) class Derived from Base { }
Answer: A

19. What keyword is used to implement interfaces?
A) implements
B) inherits
C) :
D) interface
Answer: C

20. Which of these is used to create an abstract class?
A) abstract class
B) interface class
C) virtual class
D) sealed class
Answer: A

---

21. What is boxing in C#?
A) Converting a value type to reference type
B) Converting a reference type to value type
C) Wrapping a class in another class
D) None of the above
Answer: A

22. What is unboxing in C#?
A) Converting a reference type back to value type
B) Converting a value type to reference type
C) Deleting an object
D) None of the above
Answer: A

23. Which keyword is used to prevent a class from being inherited?
A) sealed
B) final
C) static
D) private
Answer: A

24. How do you declare a constant string?
A) const string s = "Hello";
B) string const s = "Hello";
C) static string s = "Hello";
D) readonly string s = "Hello";
Answer: A

25. What is the purpose of the readonly keyword?
A) Value can be assigned only during declaration or in constructor
B) Value cannot be changed at all
C) Variable is static
D) Variable is constant
Answer: A

---

26. Which of the following is NOT a valid C# identifier?
A) _myVar
B) 2ndValue
C) myVar2
D) @class
Answer: B

27. What is the output of the following?

csharpCopyEditint x = 5;  
Console.WriteLine(x++);  

A) 5
B) 6
C) 4
D) Error
Answer: A

28. What is the difference between == and .Equals() in C#?
A) == compares references; .Equals() compares content
B) .Equals() compares references; == compares content
C) Both do the same
D) None of the above
Answer: A

29. How do you create a generic class in C#?
A) class MyClass<T> { }
B) generic class MyClass { }
C) class<T> MyClass { }
D) class MyClass<> { }
Answer: A

30. Which method is called when a class implements IDisposable?
A) Dispose()
B) Close()
C) Finalize()
D) Delete()
Answer: A

---

31. What keyword is used to declare an event in C#?
A) event
B) delegate
C) signal
D) fire
Answer: A

32. What type of language is C#?
A) Interpreted
B) Compiled
C) Both compiled and interpreted
D) Scripting
Answer: C

33. What does var keyword do in C#?
A) Infers the variable type at compile time
B) Declares a variable of any type
C) Declares a variable without a type
D) None of the above
Answer: A

34. Which namespace contains fundamental classes in C#?
A) System
B) Core
C) Base
D) Collections
Answer: A

35. How do you specify multiple interfaces for a class?
A) class MyClass : Interface1, Interface2
B) class MyClass inherits Interface1, Interface2
C) class MyClass implements Interface1 & Interface2
D) class MyClass extends Interface1, Interface2
Answer: A

---

36. What does the params keyword do?
A) Allows passing variable number of arguments to a method
B) Defines a constant parameter
C) Defines a default parameter
D) None of the above
Answer: A

37. Which of the following statements about async and await keywords is true?
A) They are used for asynchronous programming
B) They block the main thread
C) They can only be used with void methods
D) They are not supported in C#
Answer: A

38. What is the use of lock keyword?
A) To restrict access to a critical section in multithreading
B) To make a variable readonly
C) To prevent inheritance
D) None of the above
Answer: A

39. Which of the following is NOT a C# access modifier?
A) private
B) protected
C) public
D) internalize
Answer: D

40. What is a property in C#?
A) A member that provides a flexible mechanism to read, write or compute the value of a private field
B) A method
C) A variable
D) None of the above
Answer: A

---

41. Which keyword is used to call the base class constructor?
A) base
B) super
C) this
D) parent
Answer: A

42. What is an indexer in C#?
A) Allows an object to be indexed like an array
B) A type of variable
C) A method to index files
D) None of the above
Answer: A

43. What does the new keyword do when used with a method in a derived class?
A) Hides the base class method
B) Overrides the base class method
C) Deletes the base class method
D) None of the above
Answer: A

44. What type is string in C#?
A) Reference type
B) Value type
C) Pointer type
D) None of the above
Answer: A

45. Which operator is used for null-coalescing?
A) ??
B) ||
C) &&
D) ?:
Answer: A

---

46. How do you declare a constant in C# that is initialized at runtime?
A) readonly
B) const
C) static
D) volatile
Answer: A

47. Which method can be overridden to clean up unmanaged resources?
A) Finalize()
B) Dispose()
C) Destroy()
D) Cleanup()
Answer: A

48. Which keyword is used to create an anonymous method?
A) delegate
B) anonymous
C) lambda
D) func
Answer: A

49. What is the correct syntax for a lambda expression in C#?
A) (x) => x * x
B) lambda x { return x * x; }
C) => x * x
D) x => return x * x;
Answer: A

50. Which of these is used to handle multiple catch blocks?
A) Multiple catch statements after one try
B) Multiple try blocks
C) Multiple finally blocks
D) Multiple throw blocks
Answer: A

Here are 50 more MCQs on C# Programming Language for you:

---

50 Additional MCQs on C# Programming Language

---

51. Which of the following is used to represent a block of code that can be executed later?
A) Delegate
B) Event
C) Property
D) Indexer
Answer: A

52. What will be the output of the following code snippet?

csharpCopyEditint a = 10;  
int b = 20;  
Console.WriteLine(a > b ? a : b);  

A) 10
B) 20
C) true
D) false
Answer: B

53. Which of these is used to handle exceptions in C#?
A) try and catch
B) if and else
C) throw and catch
D) try and throw
Answer: A

54. Which method is used to convert a string to an integer?
A) int.Parse()
B) Convert.ToInt32()
C) Both A and B
D) string.ToInt()
Answer: C

55. How do you make a class inherit from multiple interfaces in C#?
A) class MyClass : IInterface1, IInterface2
B) class MyClass : IInterface1 & IInterface2
C) class MyClass inherits IInterface1, IInterface2
D) class MyClass implements IInterface1, IInterface2
Answer: A

---

56. What does the sealed keyword do when applied to a class?
A) Prevents the class from being inherited
B) Prevents the class from being instantiated
C) Makes the class static
D) Makes the class abstract
Answer: A

57. How do you declare a constant field inside a class?
A) public const int number = 5;
B) public static int number = 5;
C) public readonly int number = 5;
D) const public int number = 5;
Answer: A

58. What is the size of an int in C#?
A) 2 bytes
B) 4 bytes
C) 8 bytes
D) Depends on the system
Answer: B

59. Which of the following can be used to create an immutable string in C#?
A) string type
B) StringBuilder
C) char[]
D) StringWriter
Answer: A

60. Which class in C# is used for dynamic string manipulation?
A) String
B) StringBuilder
C) StringBuffer
D) StringWriter
Answer: B

---

61. Which operator is used to check for null and assign a value if null?
A) ??=
B) ??
C) ?
D) :=
Answer: A

62. What is the output of this code?

csharpCopyEditstring s = null;  
Console.WriteLine(s?.Length);  

A) Throws NullReferenceException
B) Prints 0
C) Prints nothing
D) Prints blank line (null)
Answer: D

63. Which of the following is used to define an enumeration in C#?
A) enum Colors { Red, Green, Blue }
B) enum Colors = { Red, Green, Blue }
C) enum Colors: int { Red, Green, Blue }
D) enumeration Colors { Red, Green, Blue }
Answer: A

64. What will happen if you try to access an array index out of bounds in C#?
A) Throws IndexOutOfRangeException
B) Returns null
C) Returns default value
D) Program continues silently
Answer: A

65. Which access modifier makes a member accessible only within the same assembly?
A) internal
B) protected
C) private
D) public
Answer: A

---

66. How do you create a constant variable whose value is set at runtime?
A) Use readonly keyword
B) Use const keyword
C) Use static keyword
D) Use volatile keyword
Answer: A

67. What keyword is used to declare a namespace in C#?
A) namespace
B) package
C) using
D) import
Answer: A

68. How do you make a method virtual in C#?
A) public virtual void MyMethod()
B) public override void MyMethod()
C) public abstract void MyMethod()
D) public static void MyMethod()
Answer: A

69. What is the purpose of the override keyword?
A) To override a virtual or abstract method in a derived class
B) To declare a new method
C) To make a method static
D) To hide a base method
Answer: A

70. What happens if you do not provide an override implementation for an abstract method?
A) Compilation error
B) Method is inherited as-is
C) Runtime error
D) Program ignores it
Answer: A

---

71. Which of the following correctly declares a generic method?
A) public void Display<T>(T item)
B) public <T> void Display(T item)
C) void public Display<T>(T item)
D) public void Display(T item)
Answer: A

72. How do you indicate a method parameter is optional in C#?
A) Assign a default value in method signature
B) Use the optional keyword
C) Use params keyword
D) Use default keyword
Answer: A

73. What does the params keyword allow in method parameters?
A) Pass a variable number of arguments
B) Pass only arrays
C) Pass only primitive data types
D) Pass only objects
Answer: A

74. Which of the following is NOT a valid C# identifier?
A) _myVariable
B) myVariable2
C) 2myVariable
D) @class
Answer: C

75. What is the result of this expression?

csharpCopyEditint result = 5 & 3;  

A) 1
B) 7
C) 8
D) 0
Answer: A

---

76. What type of loop is guaranteed to execute at least once?
A) do-while
B) while
C) for
D) foreach
Answer: A

77. What is the keyword used to inherit a class in C#?
A) :
B) extends
C) inherits
D) implements
Answer: A

78. How do you declare an interface in C#?
A) interface IMyInterface { }
B) class IMyInterface { }
C) abstract interface IMyInterface { }
D) implements IMyInterface { }
Answer: A

79. What is the use of the finally block?
A) To execute code regardless of exceptions
B) To catch exceptions
C) To throw exceptions
D) To define cleanup code only if exceptions occur
Answer: A

80. How do you check if an object is of a specific type?
A) Using is keyword
B) Using typeof keyword
C) Using as keyword
D) Using instanceof keyword
Answer: A

---

81. What does the as keyword do in C#?
A) Casts an object to a specific type safely
B) Compares two objects
C) Checks object type
D) None of the above
Answer: A

82. Which collection type allows you to store key-value pairs?
A) Dictionary<TKey, TValue>
B) List<T>
C) Array
D) Queue<T>
Answer: A

83. What does the yield keyword do?
A) Used in an iterator to return each element one at a time
B) Used to exit a loop
C) Used to declare a variable
D) None of the above
Answer: A

84. What type of inheritance is NOT supported in C#?
A) Multiple class inheritance
B) Single class inheritance
C) Multiple interface inheritance
D) Multilevel inheritance
Answer: A

85. Which of the following represents a value type?
A) struct
B) class
C) interface
D) delegate
Answer: A

---

86. What keyword is used to declare a structure in C#?
A) struct
B) class
C) interface
D) enum
Answer: A

87. Which method is used to release unmanaged resources in C#?
A) Dispose()
B) Finalize()
C) CleanUp()
D) Release()
Answer: B

88. What is the output of the following?

csharpCopyEditint x = 5;  
int y = ++x;  
Console.WriteLine(y);  

A) 6
B) 5
C) 4
D) Error
Answer: A

89. Which of the following is used to declare a local function inside a method?
A) You can declare a method inside a method in C# 7.0 and later
B) Not possible
C) Use delegate
D) Use lambda expression
Answer: A

90. What is the purpose of the dynamic keyword in C#?
A) Allows bypassing compile-time type checking
B) Declares a static type
C) Declares a generic type
D) Declares a constant
Answer: A

---

91. Which of the following is a correct way to initialize an array?
A) int[] numbers = {1, 2, 3};
B) int numbers[] = {1, 2, 3};
C) array<int> numbers = {1, 2, 3};
D) int numbers = new int[3]{1, 2, 3};
Answer: A

92. How do you define a tuple in C#?
A) (int, string) person = (1, "John");
B) tuple<int, string> person = (1, "John");
C) var person = tuple(1, "John");
D) (int; string) person = (1; "John");
Answer: A

93. Which exception is thrown when you try to divide by zero?
A) DivideByZeroException
B) ArithmeticException
C) NullReferenceException
D) InvalidOperationException
Answer: A

94. What is the keyword used to indicate that a method cannot be overridden?
A) sealed
B) final
C) static
D) const
Answer: A

95. What is the meaning of the partial keyword?
A) Allows splitting a class or method definition into multiple files
B) Declares an incomplete class
C) Declares a static class
D) Declares an abstract class
Answer: A

---

96. How do you make a method extension in C#?
A) Define a static method in a static class with this keyword for the first parameter
B) Use the extends keyword
C) Use the override keyword
D) Declare method in derived class
Answer: A

97. Which keyword indicates a method that can be awaited?
A) async
B) await
C) task
D) yield
Answer: A

98. What type is used to represent true or false in C#?
A) bool
B) boolean
C) Boolean
D) bit
Answer: A

99. Which of the following is NOT a valid type in C#?
A) byte
B) short
C) word
D) long
Answer: C

100. What is the default value of a bool variable in C#?
A) false
B) true
C) 0
D) null
Answer: A

Here are 50 MCQs based on HTML (HyperText Markup Language):

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50 MCQs on HTML

---

1. What does HTML stand for?
A) HyperText Markup Language
B) Hyperlinks and Text Markup Language
C) Home Tool Markup Language
D) Hyperlinking Text Mark Language
Answer: A

2. Which tag is used to create a hyperlink in HTML?
A) <link>
B) <a>
C) <href>
D) <hyperlink>
Answer: B

3. What is the correct HTML element for inserting a line break?
A) <break>
B) <br>
C) <lb>
D) <ln>
Answer: B

4. Which attribute is used to specify an alternate text for an image if the image cannot be displayed?
A) alt
B) src
C) title
D) href
Answer: A

5. How can you open a link in a new browser tab?
A) target="_blank"
B) new_tab="true"
C) open="new"
D) target="new"
Answer: A

---

6. Which tag is used to define a table row?
A) <table>
B) <td>
C) <th>
D) <tr>
Answer: D

7. What is the default font style in HTML?
A) Serif
B) Sans-serif
C) Times New Roman
D) Arial
Answer: A

8. Which tag is used to define the title of an HTML document?
A) <header>
B) <head>
C) <title>
D) <body>
Answer: C

9. How do you add a comment in HTML?
A) // This is a comment
B) <!-- This is a comment -->
C) /* This is a comment */
D) ** This is a comment **
Answer: B

10. What does the <ul> tag define?
A) Ordered list
B) Unordered list
C) Definition list
D) List item
Answer: B

---

11. Which tag is used to add an image in an HTML page?
A) <image>
B) <img>
C) <src>
D) <pic>
Answer: B

12. What is the correct HTML element for the largest heading?
A) <h1>
B) <heading>
C) <h6>
D) <head>
Answer: A

13. How do you create a numbered list in HTML?
A) <ol>
B) <ul>
C) <li>
D) <dl>
Answer: A

14. Which attribute specifies the URL of a link?
A) link
B) href
C) src
D) url
Answer: B

15. How do you create a checkbox in an HTML form?
A) <input type="checkbox">
B) <input type="check">
C) <checkbox>
D) <input type="box">
Answer: A

---

16. Which tag is used to define a paragraph?
A) <para>
B) <p>
C) <paragraph>
D) <text>
Answer: B

17. What attribute is used to specify inline CSS styles?
A) class
B) style
C) font
D) styles
Answer: B

18. Which tag is used to define an unordered list item?
A) <li>
B) <ul>
C) <ol>
D) <list>
Answer: A

19. How do you specify a background color for a webpage?
A) Using the <background> tag
B) Using the bgcolor attribute in <body> tag
C) Using CSS background-color property
D) Both B and C
Answer: D

20. What does the <meta> tag do?
A) Provides metadata about the HTML document
B) Adds meta descriptions to the body
C) Adds scripts to the page
D) Adds stylesheets
Answer: A

---

21. Which HTML element is used to define the footer for a document or section?
A) <bottom>
B) <footer>
C) <section>
D) <aside>
Answer: B

22. Which attribute is used to provide a tooltip for an element?
A) alt
B) title
C) tooltip
D) hover
Answer: B

23. What is the correct HTML element to embed JavaScript?
A) <javascript>
B) <script>
C) <js>
D) <code>
Answer: B

24. What does the <head> section usually contain?
A) Content visible to users
B) Metadata, links to CSS and scripts
C) Footer content
D) Images
Answer: B

25. How can you make a numbered list start from 5?
A) <ol start="5">
B) <ol count="5">
C) <ol begin="5">
D) <ol number="5">
Answer: A

---

26. Which tag is used to define a drop-down list?
A) <select>
B) <input>
C) <dropdown>
D) <option>
Answer: A

27. What is the correct way to create a radio button?
A) <input type="radio">
B) <radio>
C) <input type="button">
D) <radio-button>
Answer: A

28. Which tag defines a table header cell?
A) <td>
B) <th>
C) <tr>
D) <table>
Answer: B

29. How do you define a hyperlink to an email address?
A) <a href="mailto:example@example.com">Send Email</a>
B) <a href="email:example@example.com">Send Email</a>
C) <email href="example@example.com">Send Email</email>
D) <a href="mail:example@example.com">Send Email</a>
Answer: A

30. What is the correct HTML element for inserting a horizontal line?
A) <hr>
B) <line>
C) <break>
D) <hl>
Answer: A

---

31. Which tag is used to create a form in HTML?
A) <form>
B) <input>
C) <submit>
D) <fieldset>
Answer: A

32. What attribute in the <input> tag specifies the type of input?
A) input-type
B) type
C) data-type
D) form-type
Answer: B

33. How do you make an image a clickable link?
A) Wrap the <img> tag inside an <a> tag
B) Use the href attribute in <img> tag
C) Use <link> tag
D) Use <a> inside <img>
Answer: A

34. What does the <em> tag represent?
A) Bold text
B) Italicized emphasis
C) Underlined text
D) Highlighted text
Answer: B

35. Which tag is used to create a numbered list item?
A) <li>
B) <ol>
C) <ul>
D) <nl>
Answer: A

---

36. How do you embed a video in HTML5?
A) <video>
B) <media>
C) <movie>
D) <embed>
Answer: A

37. How can you make text bold in HTML?
A) <bold>
B) <b>
C) <strong>
D) Both B and C
Answer: D

38. What tag is used to display a picture on a webpage?
A) <image>
B) <picture>
C) <img>
D) <src>
Answer: C

39. Which attribute specifies the language of the document?
A) lang
B) language
C) xml:lang
D) Both A and C
Answer: D

40. Which HTML element defines the main content of a document?
A) <section>
B) <article>
C) <main>
D) <content>
Answer: C

---

41. Which tag is used for defining navigation links?
A) <navigate>
B) <nav>
C) <navigation>
D) <menu>
Answer: B

42. What does the <iframe> tag do?
A) Embeds another HTML page within the current page
B) Defines a frame around an element
C) Creates a floating image
D) None of the above
Answer: A

43. How do you insert a comment in HTML?
A) <!-- Comment -->
B) // Comment
C) /* Comment */
D) ** Comment **
Answer: A

44. Which tag is used to create a button?
A) <input type="button">
B) <button>
C) Both A and B
D) <btn>
Answer: C

45. How do you define a header in HTML5?
A) <header>
B) <head>
C) <heading>
D) <h1>
Answer: A

---

46. What attribute in the <img> tag specifies the image source?
A) href
B) src
C) link
D) source
Answer: B

47. How do you add a background color using inline CSS?
A) <body color="red">
B) <body style="background-color:red;">
C) <background color="red">
D) <body bg="red">
Answer: B

48. What does the <strong> tag represent?
A) Italic text
B) Important or strong emphasis text
C) Underlined text
D) Bold text without semantic importance
Answer: B

49. How do you create a text input field in a form?
A) <input type="text">
B) <input type="textfield">
C) <textfield>
D) <input text>
Answer: A

50. Which tag is used to create a definition list?
A) <dl>
B) <ul>
C) <ol>
D) <list>
Answer: A

Here are 50 more MCQs based on HTML:

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50 More MCQs on HTML

---

51. What is the correct HTML element to define important text?
A) <strong>
B) <important>
C) <b>
D) <em>
Answer: A

52. Which tag is used to add a background image to a webpage using inline HTML?
A) <body background="image.jpg">
B) <background src="image.jpg">
C) <img src="image.jpg">
D) <bgimage src="image.jpg">
Answer: A

53. What does the <code> tag represent?
A) Italic text
B) Computer code
C) Bold text
D) Normal text
Answer: B

54. Which HTML element is used to specify a header for a document or section?
A) <header>
B) <head>
C) <section>
D) <title>
Answer: A

55. How do you specify a checkbox in an HTML form?
A) <input type="check">
B) <checkbox>
C) <input type="checkbox">
D) <input checkbox>
Answer: C

---

56. What attribute defines the size of an input field?
A) width
B) size
C) length
D) input-size
Answer: B

57. Which HTML tag is used to define an option in a dropdown list?
A) <choice>
B) <option>
C) <select>
D) <input>
Answer: B

58. What does the <aside> tag represent?
A) Main content
B) Sidebar content related to the main content
C) Footer
D) Navigation
Answer: B

59. Which tag is used to define a blockquote?
A) <quote>
B) <blockquote>
C) <bq>
D) <q>
Answer: B

60. Which tag is used for defining an HTML section?
A) <div>
B) <section>
C) <article>
D) <main>
Answer: B

---

61. How do you add a video with controls in HTML5?
A) <video src="movie.mp4" controls>
B) <video src="movie.mp4" control>
C) <video controls="true">
D) <video controls>
Answer: D

62. What does the <figcaption> tag represent?
A) Caption for a figure element
B) Footer caption
C) Image caption
D) Header caption
Answer: A

63. Which tag is used to insert a horizontal rule or line?
A) <line>
B) <hr>
C) <rule>
D) <break>
Answer: B

64. What is the correct syntax for a self-closing tag in HTML5?
A) <img />
B) <img>
C) Both A and B
D) <img></img>
Answer: C

65. Which tag is used to group elements together?
A) <group>
B) <div>
C) <span>
D) <section>
Answer: B

---

66. Which tag is inline and used to style small parts of text?
A) <div>
B) <span>
C) <section>
D) <p>
Answer: B

67. What does the <label> tag do?
A) Defines a label for <input> elements
B) Defines a header
C) Defines a legend for a fieldset
D) Defines a caption for a table
Answer: A

68. Which attribute in <form> specifies where to send form data?
A) action
B) method
C) target
D) type
Answer: A

69. What are the two most common values for the method attribute in a form?
A) post and get
B) send and receive
C) push and pull
D) submit and retrieve
Answer: A

70. Which tag is used to define a caption for a <table>?
A) <caption>
B) <title>
C) <head>
D) <summary>
Answer: A

---

71. What attribute can be used to disable an input field?
A) readonly
B) disable
C) disabled
D) lock
Answer: C

72. What is the default alignment for <table> text?
A) Center
B) Left
C) Right
D) Justify
Answer: B

73. How do you specify multiple classes for an element?
A) Separate class names with commas
B) Separate class names with spaces
C) Use multiple class attributes
D) Use a list tag
Answer: B

74. Which tag is used to insert a line break in an HTML page?
A) <lb>
B) <break>
C) <br>
D) <line>
Answer: C

75. What is the purpose of the alt attribute in an <img> tag?
A) To specify the image source
B) To provide alternative text if the image cannot be displayed
C) To provide a tooltip on hover
D) To link the image to a URL
Answer: B

---

76. Which tag is used to embed an external webpage within a page?
A) <embed>
B) <iframe>
C) <object>
D) <frame>
Answer: B

77. What is the purpose of the DOCTYPE declaration in HTML?
A) Defines the document type and HTML version
B) Adds metadata
C) Adds scripts
D) Defines page style
Answer: A

78. How do you create a numbered list?
A) <ol>
B) <ul>
C) <list>
D) <li>
Answer: A

79. Which tag defines a list item?
A) <li>
B) <ul>
C) <ol>
D) <listitem>
Answer: A

80. How can you make text italic in HTML?
A) <italic>
B) <i>
C) <em>
D) Both B and C
Answer: D

---

81. Which HTML tag is used to specify a footer?
A) <footer>
B) <foot>
C) <bottom>
D) <section>
Answer: A

82. What does the <em> tag do?
A) Makes text bold
B) Emphasizes text (usually italic)
C) Underlines text
D) Highlights text
Answer: B

83. Which tag defines a hyperlink?
A) <href>
B) <a>
C) <link>
D) <url>
Answer: B

84. Which tag is used to insert a line break?
A) <break>
B) <br>
C) <lb>
D) <hr>
Answer: B

85. How do you define a text input field?
A) <input type="text">
B) <textfield>
C) <input type="textfield">
D) <textinput>
Answer: A

---

86. What attribute in <a> specifies the URL?
A) href
B) link
C) src
D) url
Answer: A

87. Which tag is used to create a dropdown list?
A) <select>
B) <input type="dropdown">
C) <dropdown>
D) <option>
Answer: A

88. What tag is used for inserting an image?
A) <img>
B) <image>
C) <src>
D) <pic>
Answer: A

89. Which attribute can be used to specify the language of an HTML document?
A) language
B) lang
C) xml:lang
D) Both B and C
Answer: D

90. What is the default method used to send form data?
A) POST
B) GET
C) PUT
D) DELETE
Answer: B

---

91. Which tag is used for defining an unordered list?
A) <ul>
B) <ol>
C) <li>
D) <list>
Answer: A

92. Which tag is used to define the body of an HTML document?
A) <head>
B) <title>
C) <body>
D) <html>
Answer: C

93. How do you create a hyperlink to a section within the same page?
A) <a href="#section1">
B) <a href="section1">
C) <a link="#section1">
D) <a section="section1">
Answer: A

94. What tag is used to make text bold?
A) <b>
B) <strong>
C) Both A and B
D) <bold>
Answer: C

95. Which attribute is used to group multiple radio buttons?
A) group
B) name
C) id
D) class
Answer: B

---

96. What does the <nav> tag represent?
A) Navigation links
B) Footer links
C) Sidebar content
D) Header content
Answer: A

97. Which tag is used to create a numbered list?
A) <ul>
B) <ol>
C) <li>
D) <dl>
Answer: B

98. What attribute specifies the URL for the favicon?
A) <link rel="shortcut icon" href="favicon.ico">
B) <icon href="favicon.ico">
C) <favicon href="favicon.ico">
D) <link icon="favicon.ico">
Answer: A

99. Which tag is used to insert an image map?
A) <map>
B) <imgmap>
C) <imagemap>
D) <area>
Answer: A

100. How do you define a keyboard input?
A) <kbd>
B) <key>
C) <input type="keyboard">
D) <typing>
Answer: A

50 MCQs on CSS (Cascading Style Sheets)

---

1. What does CSS stand for?
A) Computer Style Sheets
B) Creative Style Sheets
C) Cascading Style Sheets
D) Colorful Style Sheets
Answer: C

2. Which HTML tag is used to link an external CSS file?
A) <script>
B) <link>
C) <style>
D) <css>
Answer: B

3. Where in an HTML document is the correct place to refer to an external style sheet?
A) At the end of the document
B) In the <body> section
C) In the <head> section
D) Inside a <footer> tag
Answer: C

4. Which property is used to change the background color of an element?
A) background-color
B) color
C) bgcolor
D) background
Answer: A

5. How do you add a comment in a CSS file?
A) // this is a comment
B) <!-- this is a comment -->
C) /* this is a comment */
D) # this is a comment
Answer: C

---

6. Which CSS property is used to change the text color of an element?
A) color
B) font-color
C) text-color
D) fgcolor
Answer: A

7. How do you select an element with id “header” in CSS?
A) .header
B) #header
C) header
D) *header
Answer: B

8. How do you select elements with class name “menu” in CSS?
A) .menu
B) #menu
C) menu
D) *menu
Answer: A

9. Which property is used to change the font of an element?
A) font-weight
B) font-style
C) font-family
D) text-font
Answer: C

10. How do you make the text bold using CSS?
A) font-weight: bold;
B) font-style: bold;
C) text-weight: bold;
D) text-style: bold;
Answer: A

---

11. Which property controls the spacing between letters in a text?
A) letter-spacing
B) word-spacing
C) text-spacing
D) spacing
Answer: A

12. How can you add a border to an element?
A) border: 1px solid black;
B) border: 1px dashed red;
C) border: 2px dotted blue;
D) All of the above
Answer: D

13. Which property is used to change the size of text?
A) font-size
B) text-size
C) font-style
D) text-style
Answer: A

14. How do you select all <p> elements inside a <div>?
A) div.p
B) div > p
C) div p
D) p div
Answer: C

15. Which property is used to control the transparency of an element?
A) opacity
B) transparent
C) visibility
D) alpha
Answer: A

---

16. What is the default position value of an HTML element?
A) absolute
B) relative
C) fixed
D) static
Answer: D

17. Which property is used to change the left margin of an element?
A) left
B) margin-left
C) padding-left
D) indent
Answer: B

18. How do you make a list without bullets?
A) list-style-type: none;
B) list-style: no-bullet;
C) bullet: none;
D) list: none;
Answer: A

19. Which property is used to change the width of an element?
A) width
B) height
C) size
D) length
Answer: A

20. How can you add space inside an element between the content and the border?
A) margin
B) padding
C) spacing
D) border-spacing
Answer: B

---

21. What does the z-index property do?
A) Controls the transparency
B) Controls the stacking order of elements
C) Controls the size of an element
D) Controls the text size
Answer: B

22. Which property controls the style of the list marker?
A) list-style
B) list-type
C) marker-style
D) bullet-style
Answer: A

23. How do you select all elements of a specific type?
A) By class selector
B) By id selector
C) By tag selector
D) By universal selector
Answer: C

24. Which property sets the font to italic?
A) font-style: italic;
B) font-weight: italic;
C) text-style: italic;
D) style: italic;
Answer: A

25. Which property is used to control the visibility of an element?
A) visible
B) visibility
C) display
D) show
Answer: B

---

26. What is the difference between visibility: hidden; and display: none;?
A) Both hide the element completely
B) visibility: hidden hides but occupies space, display: none removes element and space
C) visibility: hidden shows the element, display: none hides the element
D) No difference
Answer: B

27. How do you apply styles to multiple selectors?
A) Separate selectors with commas
B) Separate selectors with spaces
C) Use + between selectors
D) Use * between selectors
Answer: A

28. Which property controls the height of an element?
A) height
B) width
C) size
D) length
Answer: A

29. How do you change the cursor to a pointer when hovering over an element?
A) cursor: pointer;
B) cursor: hand;
C) mouse: pointer;
D) pointer: true;
Answer: A

30. What does the float property do?
A) Moves an element to the left or right, allowing text to wrap around it
B) Changes an element’s opacity
C) Makes an element fixed on the screen
D) Sets the vertical alignment of text
Answer: A

---

31. Which CSS property controls the spacing between words?
A) letter-spacing
B) word-spacing
C) text-spacing
D) spacing
Answer: B

32. How do you center a block element horizontally?
A) margin: auto;
B) text-align: center;
C) center: true;
D) align: center;
Answer: A

33. Which property is used to make text uppercase?
A) text-transform: uppercase;
B) text-style: uppercase;
C) font-style: uppercase;
D) case: uppercase;
Answer: A

34. What is the default display property of <div> elements?
A) inline
B) block
C) inline-block
D) none
Answer: B

35. How do you add a shadow to text?
A) text-shadow
B) shadow
C) font-shadow
D) box-shadow
Answer: A

---

36. Which property is used to add space between the border and the content?
A) margin
B) padding
C) border-spacing
D) spacing
Answer: B

37. How do you specify a hexadecimal color code in CSS?
A) color: #FF0000;
B) color: 0xFF0000;
C) color: hex(FF0000);
D) color: $FF0000;
Answer: A

38. What is the CSS rule to change all <h1> elements to blue?
A) h1 { color: blue; }
B) h1 { text-color: blue; }
C) h1 { font-color: blue; }
D) h1 { bg-color: blue; }
Answer: A

39. How do you make a website responsive?
A) Use media queries
B) Use fixed widths
C) Use absolute positioning
D) Use inline styles only
Answer: A

40. Which property is used to control the overflow content of an element?
A) overflow
B) content
C) scroll
D) overflow-style
Answer: A

---

41. Which property controls the vertical alignment of an inline element?
A) vertical-align
B) text-align
C) align
D) position
Answer: A

42. What is the correct CSS syntax?
A) {body;color:black;}
B) body:color=black;
C) body {color: black;}
D) {body:color=black;}
Answer: C

43. How do you change the font size of an element to 16 pixels?
A) font-size: 16px;
B) font: 16px;
C) text-size: 16px;
D) size: 16px;
Answer: A

44. Which property is used to make text underlined?
A) text-decoration: underline;
B) font-decoration: underline;
C) text-style: underline;
D) underline: true;
Answer: A

45. How do you select the first child of an element in CSS?
A) :first-child
B) :first
C) first
D) .first-child
Answer: A

---

46. Which property controls the space between the border and the element’s margin?
A) padding
B) margin
C) border-spacing
D) spacing
Answer: B

47. How do you write a media query for screens larger than 600px?
A) @media (min-width: 600px) { ... }
B) @media (max-width: 600px) { ... }
C) @media screen > 600px { ... }
D) @media width > 600px { ... }
Answer: A

48. Which property controls the background image repetition?
A) background-repeat
B) background-repeat-style
C) image-repeat
D) repeat-background
Answer: A

49. What is the CSS property to control text alignment?
A) text-align
B) align-text
C) text-position
D) position
Answer: A

50. How do you make a link color red when hovered?
A) a:hover { color: red; }
B) a:hover { text-color: red; }
C) a { hover-color: red; }
D) a { color:hover: red; }
Answer: A

Here are 50 more MCQs on CSS for you:

---

50 More MCQs on CSS

---

1. Which CSS property is used to control the style of the border’s corners?
A) border-style
B) border-radius
C) corner-style
D) border-corner
Answer: B

2. What is the default value of the position property?
A) relative
B) absolute
C) static
D) fixed
Answer: C

3. Which CSS property is used to specify the space between columns in a multi-column layout?
A) column-gap
B) column-spacing
C) column-margin
D) gap
Answer: A

4. How do you apply CSS styles to an element only when a user hovers over it?
A) :hover pseudo-class
B) :active pseudo-class
C) :focus pseudo-class
D) :visited pseudo-class
Answer: A

5. Which unit is relative to the root element’s font size?
A) px
B) em
C) %
D) rem
Answer: D

---

6. Which CSS property controls the text indentation?
A) text-indent
B) text-indentation
C) indent
D) padding-left
Answer: A

7. How do you write a CSS rule that applies only to <p> elements inside elements with class “content”?
A) .content p { ... }
B) p.content { ... }
C) content > p { ... }
D) p .content { ... }
Answer: A

8. What is the effect of display: inline;?
A) Element takes up full width
B) Element does not start on a new line and only takes up as much width as necessary
C) Element is hidden
D) Element floats left
Answer: B

9. What does inherit value do in CSS?
A) Inherits the property value from the parent element
B) Overrides the property with default browser styles
C) Resets the property to initial value
D) Removes the property
Answer: A

10. Which property is used to control the layering of positioned elements?
A) z-index
B) stack-level
C) layer
D) position
Answer: A

---

11. How do you select an element with both classes “button” and “active”?
A) .button.active
B) #button.active
C) .button, .active
D) button.active
Answer: A

12. Which of the following is NOT a valid CSS unit?
A) px
B) em
C) cm
D) ptx
Answer: D

13. Which property is used to make a block-level element behave like an inline element?
A) display: block;
B) display: inline;
C) display: inline-block;
D) float: left;
Answer: B

14. Which CSS pseudo-class applies styles to every even child element?
A) :even
B) :nth-child(even)
C) :nth-of-type(even)
D) :child(even)
Answer: B

15. How do you make a text bold and italic simultaneously?
A) font-weight: bold; font-style: italic;
B) font-weight: italic; font-style: bold;
C) text-weight: bold; text-style: italic;
D) style: bold italic;
Answer: A

---

16. What CSS property is used to change the spacing between lines of text?
A) line-height
B) letter-spacing
C) text-spacing
D) word-spacing
Answer: A

17. Which property is used to create space between table cells?
A) cell-spacing
B) border-spacing
C) padding
D) margin
Answer: B

18. How can you make an element responsive to different screen sizes?
A) Using fixed widths in pixels
B) Using percentages or relative units (em, rem)
C) Using only inline styles
D) Using absolute positioning
Answer: B

19. Which CSS property is used to control the style of a list item marker?
A) list-style-type
B) list-marker
C) marker-style
D) list-bullet
Answer: A

20. Which CSS property is used to control the shadow effect on a box?
A) box-shadow
B) text-shadow
C) shadow
D) border-shadow
Answer: A

---

21. Which CSS property changes the style of the cursor when hovered?
A) cursor
B) pointer
C) mouse
D) hover
Answer: A

22. How do you make a fixed positioned element?
A) position: fixed;
B) position: absolute;
C) position: relative;
D) position: static;
Answer: A

23. What does the clear property do in CSS?
A) Removes an element
B) Stops elements from floating beside the cleared element
C) Resets the background color
D) Clears the content inside an element
Answer: B

24. Which property would you use to change the font weight to light?
A) font-weight: light;
B) font-weight: 300;
C) font-weight: 100;
D) Both B and C are correct
Answer: D

25. How do you apply a style only for print media?
A) @media print { ... }
B) @media all { ... }
C) @media screen { ... }
D) @print { ... }
Answer: A

---

26. What does min-width property do?
A) Sets the minimum width of an element
B) Sets the maximum width of an element
C) Sets the initial width of an element
D) None of the above
Answer: A

27. Which CSS selector matches all elements?
A) *
B) all
C) #all
D) .all
Answer: A

28. What is the effect of visibility: collapse; on table rows?
A) Row is hidden and space is removed
B) Row is hidden but space is preserved
C) Row becomes visible
D) No effect
Answer: A

29. Which property allows text to be truncated with ellipsis when it overflows?
A) text-overflow: ellipsis;
B) overflow: ellipsis;
C) text-truncate: true;
D) overflow-truncate: ellipsis;
Answer: A

30. Which CSS property changes the order of flex items?
A) order
B) flex-order
C) item-order
D) position
Answer: A

---

31. Which CSS function is used to specify colors using RGB values?
A) rgb()
B) color()
C) rgba()
D) hsl()
Answer: A

32. What is the default value of the display property for <span>?
A) block
B) inline
C) inline-block
D) none
Answer: B

33. How do you create a grid layout in CSS?
A) display: grid;
B) display: flex;
C) display: block;
D) display: inline-grid;
Answer: A

34. Which CSS property controls the visibility of an element but keeps the space?
A) visibility: hidden;
B) display: none;
C) opacity: 0;
D) hidden: true;
Answer: A

35. How do you change the font size of an element for all screen sizes?
A) font-size: 16px;
B) font-size: 100%;
C) font-size: 1rem;
D) All are valid depending on context
Answer: D

---

36. Which property controls the style of a horizontal line?
A) border-style
B) hr-style
C) line-style
D) rule-style
Answer: A

37. What value of position makes an element stay in one place even when scrolling?
A) fixed
B) absolute
C) relative
D) sticky
Answer: A

38. How do you apply a style only to direct children <li> of a <ul>?
A) ul > li { ... }
B) ul li { ... }
C) ul + li { ... }
D) ul li:first-child { ... }
Answer: A

39. What is the default display value of <table>?
A) block
B) inline
C) table
D) flex
Answer: C

40. Which property is used to set the background color of an element?
A) background-color
B) color
C) bg-color
D) background
Answer: A

---

41. Which CSS property controls how text wraps inside an element?
A) word-wrap
B) text-wrap
C) wrap-text
D) wrap
Answer: A

42. Which CSS property is used to make text not selectable?
A) user-select: none;
B) select: none;
C) text-select: none;
D) no-select: true;
Answer: A

43. What is the function of float: right;?
A) Positions the element to the right and allows text to flow around it
B) Hides the element to the right
C) Aligns text to the right inside the element
D) None of the above
Answer: A

44. How do you set a fixed width of 200 pixels and height of 100 pixels?
A) width: 200px; height: 100px;
B) size: 200px 100px;
C) width: 100px; height: 200px;
D) dim: 200 100;
Answer: A

45. How do you write CSS inline inside an HTML tag?
A) <p style="color:blue;">
B) <p css="color:blue;">
C) <p class="color:blue;">
D) <p font="color:blue;">
Answer: A

---

46. What does the CSS property box-sizing: border-box; do?
A) Includes padding and border in the element’s total width and height
B) Excludes padding and border from element’s size
C) Adds a border to the box
D) Changes box color
Answer: A

47. How do you make a <div> element take up the full width of its parent container?
A) width: 100%;
B) width: 100vw;
C) width: auto;
D) Both A and B are valid depending on context
Answer: D

48. What CSS property controls the space between words?
A) word-spacing
B) letter-spacing
C) spacing
D) text-spacing
Answer: A

49. What is the syntax for an ID selector in CSS?
A) #idname
B) .idname
C) id=idname
D) *idname
Answer: A

50. How do you remove the underline from links?
A) text-decoration: none;
B) underline: none;
C) link-decoration: none;
D) text-decoration: remove;
Answer: A

Here are 50 multiple choice questions (MCQs) based on JavaScript, ranging from basic to intermediate level:

---

JavaScript MCQs (Set of 50 Questions)

---

1. Which company developed JavaScript?
A) Mozilla
B) Netscape
C) Sun Microsystems
D) Oracle
Answer: B

2. What is the correct syntax for referring to an external script called “app.js”?
A) <script src="app.js">
B) <script href="app.js">
C) <script ref="app.js">
D) <script name="app.js">
Answer: A

3. How do you write “Hello World” in an alert box?
A) msg("Hello World");
B) alertBox("Hello World");
C) alert("Hello World");
D) msgBox("Hello World");
Answer: C

4. Inside which HTML element do we put JavaScript?
A) <script>
B) <js>
C) <javascript>
D) <code>
Answer: A

5. JavaScript is a _______ language.
A) Server-side
B) Markup
C) Scripting
D) Programming
Answer: C

---

**6. What will the following code output?

jsCopyEditconsole.log(typeof null);
```**  
A) "object"  
B) "null"  
C) "undefined"  
D) "number"  
**Answer: A**

**7. Which symbol is used for single-line comments in JavaScript?**  
A) `<!--`  
B) `//`  
C) `**`  
D) `##`  
**Answer: B**

**8. How do you create a function in JavaScript?**  
A) `function = myFunction()`  
B) `function myFunction()`  
C) `create.myFunction()`  
D) `define function myFunction()`  
**Answer: B**

**9. How do you call a function named `myFunction`?**  
A) `call myFunction()`  
B) `myFunction()`  
C) `call function myFunction()`  
D) `run myFunction()`  
**Answer: B**

**10. How to write an IF statement in JavaScript?**  
A) `if i = 5 then`  
B) `if (i == 5)`  
C) `if i == 5 then`  
D) `if i = 5`  
**Answer: B**

---

**11. JavaScript is case-sensitive.**  
A) True  
B) False  
**Answer: A**

**12. Which operator is used to assign a value to a variable?**  
A) `*`  
B) `-`  
C) `=`  
D) `%`  
**Answer: C**

**13. How can you detect the client’s browser name?**  
A) `browser.name`  
B) `navigator.appName`  
C) `client.navName`  
D) `window.browser`  
**Answer: B**

**14. How do you add a comment in JavaScript that spans multiple lines?**  
A) `// Comment //`  
B) `/* Comment */`  
C) `<!-- Comment -->`  
D) `## Comment ##`  
**Answer: B**

**15. Which method converts JSON text to a JavaScript object?**  
A) `JSON.toObject()`  
B) `JSON.parse()`  
C) `JSON.convert()`  
D) `JSON.stringify()`  
**Answer: B**

---

**16. Which keyword is used to declare a variable in JavaScript?**  
A) `var`  
B) `int`  
C) `string`  
D) `float`  
**Answer: A**

**17. What is the output of: `typeof NaN`?**  
A) "NaN"  
B) "undefined"  
C) "object"  
D) "number"  
**Answer: D**

**18. Which of the following is a JavaScript data type?**  
A) float  
B) number  
C) decimal  
D) real  
**Answer: B**

**19. Which keyword is used to exit a function early?**  
A) `stop`  
B) `return`  
C) `break`  
D) `exit`  
**Answer: B**

**20. What is the default value of an uninitialized variable?**  
A) `null`  
B) `0`  
C) `undefined`  
D) `false`  
**Answer: C**

---

**21. How do you create an array in JavaScript?**  
A) `var arr = (1,2,3)`  
B) `var arr = [1,2,3]`  
C) `var arr = "1,2,3"`  
D) `var arr = array(1,2,3)`  
**Answer: B**

**22. What is the correct way to write a JavaScript array?**  
A) `var colors = "red", "green", "blue"`  
B) `var colors = (1:"red", 2:"green", 3:"blue")`  
C) `var colors = ["red", "green", "blue"]`  
D) `var colors = 1 = ("red"), 2 = ("green"), 3 = ("blue")`  
**Answer: C**

**23. Which method adds a new item to the end of an array?**  
A) `push()`  
B) `pop()`  
C) `shift()`  
D) `add()`  
**Answer: A**

**24. What is the output of `Boolean(10 > 9)`?**  
A) `false`  
B) `true`  
C) `NaN`  
D) `undefined`  
**Answer: B**

**25. Which function is used to print something in the browser console?**  
A) `console.print()`  
B) `console.log()`  
C) `log.console()`  
D) `print()`  
**Answer: B**

---

**26. What will `2 + '2'` output in JavaScript?**  
A) `4`  
B) `'22'`  
C) `NaN`  
D) `undefined`  
**Answer: B**

**27. What is the result of `0 == '0'`?**  
A) `true`  
B) `false`  
**Answer: A**

**28. What is the result of `0 === '0'`?**  
A) `true`  
B) `false`  
**Answer: B**

**29. What is a closure in JavaScript?**  
A) A block of code  
B) A function with private variables  
C) A loop  
D) An if-else block  
**Answer: B**

**30. What does `setTimeout()` do?**  
A) Pauses script  
B) Executes a function after a delay  
C) Repeats function continuously  
D) Stops function  
**Answer: B**

---

**31. Which of the following is a looping structure in JavaScript?**  
A) `for`  
B) `while`  
C) `do...while`  
D) All of the above  
**Answer: D**

**32. What does the `this` keyword refer to inside an object method?**  
A) The global object  
B) The object itself  
C) The document  
D) The parent object  
**Answer: B**

**33. Which symbol is used to access properties of an object?**  
A) `-`  
B) `:`  
C) `.`  
D) `#`  
**Answer: C**

**34. What is the result of `"5" - 2` in JavaScript?**  
A) `"3"`  
B) `3`  
C) `"52"`  
D) `NaN`  
**Answer: B**

**35. Which built-in method returns the characters in a string beginning at the specified location?**  
A) `substr()`  
B) `getSubstring()`  
C) `slice()`  
D) `charAt()`  
**Answer: A**

---

**36. Which of the following is NOT a JavaScript framework?**  
A) Angular  
B) React  
C) Vue  
D) Django  
**Answer: D**

**37. How do you check the length of an array named `arr`?**  
A) `arr.count`  
B) `arr.length`  
C) `arr.size()`  
D) `arr.length()`  
**Answer: B**

**38. Which object is the root of the DOM in browsers?**  
A) `window`  
B) `document`  
C) `navigator`  
D) `screen`  
**Answer: B**

**39. Which method removes the last element from an array?**  
A) `shift()`  
B) `pop()`  
C) `splice()`  
D) `remove()`  
**Answer: B**

**40. How do you convert a string to an integer in JavaScript?**  
A) `toInt()`  
B) `parseInt()`  
C) `int()`  
D) `StringToInt()`  
**Answer: B**

---

**41. What is the output of `"hello".length`?**  
A) 4  
B) 5  
C) 6  
D) 0  
**Answer: B**

**42. Which operator is used for logical AND in JavaScript?**  
A) `&&`  
B) `&`  
C) `and`  
D) `+`  
**Answer: A**

**43. What will `typeof []` return?**  
A) "object"  
B) "array"  
C) "list"  
D) "undefined"  
**Answer: A**

**44. How do you write a conditional (ternary) operator in JavaScript?**  
A) `if-then-else`  
B) `? :`  
C) `?? ::`  
D) `=>`  
**Answer: B**

**45. What is the correct syntax to check if a variable `x` is not equal to 10?**  
A) `x != 10`  
B) `x <> 10`  
C) `x !== 10`  
D) Both A and C  
**Answer: D**

---

**46. Which keyword is used to define a constant in JavaScript?**  
A) `let`  
B) `const`  
C) `var`  
D) `define`  
**Answer: B**

**47. Which event occurs when the user clicks on an HTML element?**  
A) `onmouseclick`  
B) `onchange`  
C) `onmouseover`  
D) `onclick`  
**Answer: D**

**48. What is the output of `Boolean("")`?**  
A) true  
B) false  
**Answer: B**

**49. What is the correct syntax to import a module in modern JavaScript?**  
A) `include('module')`  
B) `import module`  
C) `import module from "module"`  
D) `require('module')`  
**Answer: C**

**50. How do you handle exceptions in JavaScript?**  
A) `try-catch`  
B) `if-else`  
C) `catch-throw`  
D) `onerror`  
**Answer: A**

Here are 50 more MCQs based on JavaScript, focusing on a mix of topics including ES6, DOM manipulation, functions, events, objects, and more:

---

JavaScript MCQs – Set 2

---

1. What will the following code output?

javascriptCopyEditconsole.log(1 + "2" + "2");

A) 5
B) “122”
C) 14
D) “32”
Answer: B

---

2. Which method is used to round a number to the nearest integer?
A) Math.floor()
B) Math.ceil()
C) Math.round()
D) Math.integer()
Answer: C

---

3. Which of the following is a correct arrow function syntax?
A) function => () {}
B) () => {}
C) ()=> function {}
D) () -> {}
Answer: B

---

4. Which method combines two arrays?
A) merge()
B) combine()
C) concat()
D) append()
Answer: C

---

5. What is the correct way to declare a class in JavaScript?
A) class = MyClass {}
B) function class MyClass {}
C) class MyClass {}
D) MyClass class {}
Answer: C

---

6. What keyword is used to create an inheritance in classes?
A) extends
B) inherits
C) instanceof
D) super
Answer: A

---

7. What is the use of the super keyword?
A) To create a parent class
B) To call parent class constructor
C) To end a class
D) To define a static method
Answer: B

---

8. What will typeof [] return in JavaScript?
A) “array”
B) “object”
C) “list”
D) “undefined”
Answer: B

---

9. Which of the following will remove the first element from an array?
A) arr.pop()
B) arr.shift()
C) arr.remove(0)
D) arr.splice(-1, 1)
Answer: B

---

10. What is the output of "3" + 2 + 1?
A) "321"
B) "33"
C) "6"
D) "321"
Answer: D

---

11. What does JSON.stringify() do?
A) Converts an object to a JSON string
B) Converts a string to JSON
C) Parses a JSON string
D) Compresses JSON data
Answer: A

---

12. How do you check if a variable x is an array?
A) x.isArray()
B) Array(x)
C) Array.isArray(x)
D) typeof x === 'array'
Answer: C

---

13. What is the default behavior of event.preventDefault()?
A) Stops the event
B) Prevents the default action of the event
C) Prevents bubbling
D) Pauses JavaScript
Answer: B

---

14. Which method is used to stop an interval in JavaScript?
A) clearInterval()
B) stopInterval()
C) endInterval()
D) breakInterval()
Answer: A

---

15. Which operator returns true if both operands are true?
A) &
B) &&
C) ||
D) ==
Answer: B

---

16. What is the output of null == undefined?
A) true
B) false
Answer: A

---

17. Which of the following is a primitive data type?
A) Object
B) Array
C) Boolean
D) Function
Answer: C

---

18. What does the addEventListener() method do?
A) Adds HTML content
B) Adds a function to be executed on an event
C) Changes style of element
D) Adds a new element
Answer: B

---

19. How do you write an object in JavaScript?
A) {name: "John", age: 30}
B) ["John", 30]
C) "John", 30
D) object(name="John", age=30)
Answer: A

---

20. What will the console.log(typeof NaN) print?
A) “undefined”
B) “number”
C) “NaN”
D) “object”
Answer: B

---

21. Which method returns the index of the first occurrence of a value in an array?
A) index()
B) search()
C) find()
D) indexOf()
Answer: D

---

22. What is the result of typeof undefined?
A) “null”
B) “undefined”
C) “object”
D) “NaN”
Answer: B

---

23. Which method is used to merge all elements of an array into a string?
A) concat()
B) join()
C) combine()
D) toString()
Answer: B

---

24. What is a promise in JavaScript?
A) A type of loop
B) An error handling structure
C) An object for asynchronous operations
D) A built-in object method
Answer: C

---

25. Which keyword is used to wait for a promise to resolve?
A) wait
B) await
C) pause
D) yield
Answer: B

---

26. Which keyword is used to define a block scope variable in ES6?
A) var
B) static
C) let
D) const
Answer: C

---

27. What does the slice() method do?
A) Removes items from an array
B) Adds items to an array
C) Returns a shallow copy of a portion of an array
D) Changes the original array
Answer: C

---

28. How do you comment a single line in JavaScript?
A) <!-- comment -->
B) /* comment */
C) # comment
D) // comment
Answer: D

---

29. What is the output of !!false?
A) false
B) true
C) undefined
D) NaN
Answer: A

---

30. Which loop executes at least once even if the condition is false?
A) for
B) while
C) do...while
D) forEach
Answer: C

---

31. Which function is used to convert a string to lowercase?
A) toLower()
B) toLowerCase()
C) lower()
D) small()
Answer: B

---

32. How do you define a constant in JavaScript?
A) let PI = 3.14;
B) var PI = 3.14;
C) const PI = 3.14;
D) PI := 3.14;
Answer: C

---

33. What does the map() function do?
A) Filters an array
B) Reduces an array
C) Executes a function on each array element and returns a new array
D) Sorts an array
Answer: C

---

34. What is document.getElementById() used for?
A) Get class name
B) Get tag name
C) Get element by ID
D) Get all child elements
Answer: C

---

35. Which of these is a falsy value in JavaScript?
A) "false"
B) false
C) 1
D) "0"
Answer: B

---

36. What will "5" * 2 output?
A) "10"
B) 10
C) NaN
D) 52
Answer: B

---

37. What method is used to convert a number to a string?
A) parseString()
B) stringify()
C) toString()
D) toText()
Answer: C

---

**38. What will the following code return?

javascriptCopyEdittypeof function() {};
```**  
A) "object"  
B) "function"  
C) "undefined"  
D) "null"  
**Answer: B**

---

**39. Which of the following is not a loop structure in JavaScript?**  
A) `for`  
B) `while`  
C) `repeat`  
D) `do...while`  
**Answer: C**

---

**40. What will `Math.max(10, 5, 20)` return?**  
A) `10`  
B) `5`  
C) `20`  
D) `undefined`  
**Answer: C**

---

**41. What is the result of `'10' === 10`?**  
A) `true`  
B) `false`  
**Answer: B**

---

**42. What is the output of: `Boolean("false")`?**  
A) `false`  
B) `true`  
**Answer: B**

---

**43. Which array method removes the last element?**  
A) `shift()`  
B) `pop()`  
C) `splice()`  
D) `remove()`  
**Answer: B**

---

**44. What keyword is used to declare a variable with global scope (not recommended)?**  
A) `var`  
B) `const`  
C) `let`  
D) `global`  
**Answer: A**

---

**45. How can you convert a string to a float in JavaScript?**  
A) `toFloat()`  
B) `parseFloat()`  
C) `float()`  
D) `convert()`  
**Answer: B**

---

**46. What does DOM stand for?**  
A) Document Object Method  
B) Data Object Model  
C) Document Object Model  
D) Data Oriented Module  
**Answer: C**

---

**47. What will `"2" + 2 + 2` result in?**  
A) `6`  
B) `222`  
C) `42`  
D) `NaN`  
**Answer: B**

---

**48. Which object is the root of every JavaScript scope in browsers?**  
A) `document`  
B) `this`  
C) `window`  
D) `scope`  
**Answer: C**

---

**49. What method is used to iterate over an array and apply a function to each element?**  
A) `map()`  
B) `apply()`  
C) `filter()`  
D) `indexOf()`  
**Answer: A**

---

**50. How do you declare a string in JavaScript?**  
A) `string name = "John";`  
B) `var name = 'John';`  
C) `char name = "John";`  
D) `text name = John;`  
**Answer: B**

Here are 50 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) based on Adobe Dreamweaver, covering fundamentals, interface, features, coding tools, and best practices:

---

Dreamweaver MCQs (Set of 50)

---

1. Dreamweaver is primarily used for:
A) Photo editing
B) Video rendering
C) Web development
D) Word processing
Answer: C

---

2. What is the default document type in Dreamweaver?
A) XHTML
B) HTML5
C) CSS
D) PHP
Answer: B

---

3. Which Adobe product family does Dreamweaver belong to?
A) Creative Cloud
B) Creative Suite
C) Web Premium
D) Web Design Pro
Answer: A

---

4. What is the purpose of the ‘Split’ view in Dreamweaver?
A) Shows CSS code only
B) Splits HTML and JavaScript
C) Shows both code and design views
D) Opens two pages at once
Answer: C

---

5. Dreamweaver is available for which platforms?
A) Windows only
B) Mac only
C) Both Windows and Mac
D) Linux
Answer: C

---

6. What is the function of the ‘Live View’ in Dreamweaver?
A) Edits JavaScript
B) Shows how the website looks in a browser
C) Compresses images
D) Debugs PHP
Answer: B

---

7. Which coding languages can Dreamweaver handle?
A) HTML only
B) HTML, CSS
C) HTML, CSS, JavaScript, PHP
D) Python and C++
Answer: C

---

8. What is the function of the Properties panel?
A) Manages CSS files
B) Changes file names
C) Displays and edits the properties of selected elements
D) Runs scripts
Answer: C

---

9. What does WYSIWYG stand for?
A) What You See Is What You Get
B) Web Your Style Is Web Good
C) What You Select Is Web Good
D) None of the above
Answer: A

---

10. Which panel allows you to manage your site’s files?
A) Insert Panel
B) Files Panel
C) Code Panel
D) Properties Panel
Answer: B

---

11. Dreamweaver supports which frameworks natively?
A) Angular
B) Bootstrap
C) React
D) Django
Answer: B

---

12. Which version introduced full HTML5 support?
A) CS2
B) CS4
C) CS6
D) CC
Answer: C

---

13. Which of the following is not a view mode in Dreamweaver?
A) Code
B) Design
C) Live
D) Admin
Answer: D

---

14. Dreamweaver can connect to servers using:
A) HTTP only
B) FTP, SFTP, Local/Network
C) SSH only
D) Only local drives
Answer: B

---

15. To define a website in Dreamweaver, you need to specify:
A) HTML version
B) Site name and local site folder
C) Server type only
D) Programming language
Answer: B

---

16. What is the purpose of ‘Templates’ in Dreamweaver?
A) Save documents
B) Create reusable layouts
C) Print pages
D) Insert animations
Answer: B

---

17. Which tool helps to visually edit CSS in Dreamweaver?
A) Style Panel
B) CSS Designer
C) Code Editor
D) Media Manager
Answer: B

---

18. What does the DOM panel show?
A) CSS hierarchy
B) JavaScript code
C) HTML structure
D) File size
Answer: C

---

19. Which extension is used for Dreamweaver templates?
A) .tpl
B) .dwt
C) .dwm
D) .html
Answer: B

---

20. You can preview your design using:
A) Chrome
B) Safari
C) Firefox
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

21. What shortcut opens the Code view?
A) F3
B) F6
C) Ctrl + Shift + C
D) Ctrl + ` (backtick)
Answer: D

---

22. Which menu helps you insert HTML elements?
A) Edit
B) View
C) Insert
D) Window
Answer: C

---

23. Dreamweaver CC is part of which subscription model?
A) One-time purchase
B) Freeware
C) Adobe Creative Cloud
D) Shareware
Answer: C

---

24. Which extension denotes a CSS file?
A) .css
B) .cs
C) .style
D) .cst
Answer: A

---

25. What is the use of the ‘Assets’ panel?
A) Shows errors
B) Manages site-wide assets like images, colors, scripts
C) Shows code hints
D) Controls live preview
Answer: B

---

26. What scripting languages can you write in Dreamweaver?
A) PHP
B) JavaScript
C) Both A and B
D) Java only
Answer: C

---

27. What is the default document title in Dreamweaver?
A) Welcome
B) New Page
C) Untitled Document
D) Index
Answer: C

---

28. What does Ctrl + / do in code view?
A) Save file
B) Create new tag
C) Comment/uncomment line
D) Run preview
Answer: C

---

29. Dreamweaver’s site setup allows:
A) Version control
B) Testing servers
C) Multiple sites
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

30. The Insert panel allows users to insert:
A) Forms
B) Media
C) Layout elements
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

31. What is a library item in Dreamweaver?
A) A downloadable plugin
B) A reusable block of content
C) A backup file
D) None of the above
Answer: B

---

32. Dreamweaver supports code hinting for:
A) HTML
B) CSS
C) JavaScript
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

33. In Dreamweaver, a “fluid grid layout” is used to:
A) Create static designs
B) Create mobile-first responsive layouts
C) Animate images
D) Design video players
Answer: B

---

34. Which file types can be embedded in Dreamweaver?
A) PDF
B) MP4
C) SWF
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

35. What is Emmet in Dreamweaver?
A) A CSS filter
B) A tool for fast HTML coding
C) A media encoder
D) A font management plugin
Answer: B

---

36. The “Preview in Browser” feature lets you:
A) Save the file
B) Upload files
C) View your page in a real browser
D) Export PDF
Answer: C

---

37. Dreamweaver’s find and replace tool can work:
A) In one file
B) Across the entire site
C) In selected files
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

38. Which panel in Dreamweaver provides visual layout tools for flexbox and grid?
A) DOM Panel
B) CSS Designer
C) Layout Panel
D) Flex Tools Panel
Answer: B

---

39. Can Dreamweaver be used with Git version control?
A) Yes
B) No
Answer: A

---

40. What does the term ‘Bootstrap Components’ refer to in Dreamweaver?
A) JavaScript plugins
B) Reusable HTML/CSS UI elements
C) Fonts
D) Animation files
Answer: B

---

41. What is the output file extension when exporting an HTML page from Dreamweaver?
A) .docx
B) .html
C) .php
D) .xml
Answer: B

---

42. What is the function of the “Extract” feature in Dreamweaver?
A) Compress files
B) Extract text from PDFs
C) Convert PSD to HTML/CSS
D) Export images
Answer: C

---

43. In Dreamweaver, how can you manage external stylesheets?
A) From the Insert menu
B) Using CSS Designer
C) In Code view only
D) Through FTP settings
Answer: B

---

44. What is the advantage of using snippets in Dreamweaver?
A) Insert common code blocks
B) Add animations
C) Compress images
D) Auto-save documents
Answer: A

---

45. What happens when you use the ‘Put’ command?
A) Deletes the file
B) Publishes the file to the server
C) Copies file locally
D) Replaces it with template
Answer: B

---

46. Can you debug JavaScript directly in Dreamweaver?
A) Fully
B) Partially using console
C) No
D) Only via Chrome DevTools
Answer: B

---

47. What does the Quick Tag Editor do?
A) Removes tags
B) Allows quick insertion/editing of tags
C) Converts HTML to PHP
D) Shows tag history
Answer: B

---

48. Dreamweaver supports which browser preview tool?
A) BrowserLab
B) CrossTest
C) WebWatch
D) LiveWatch
Answer: A

---

49. What feature allows previewing pages on multiple device sizes?
A) Device Emulator
B) Responsive Preview
C) Screen Switcher
D) ViewPort Manager
Answer: B

---

50. Dreamweaver is best suited for:
A) Game development
B) Web development and design
C) Video editing
D) 3D modeling
Answer: B

Here are 50 more multiple choice questions (MCQs) based on Adobe Dreamweaver, focusing on intermediate and advanced features, shortcuts, integration, responsive design, and troubleshooting.

---

Adobe Dreamweaver – 50 MCQs (Set 2)

---

1. Which Dreamweaver feature helps in visually building responsive design grids?
A) Grid Creator
B) Fluid Grid Layout
C) Layer Panel
D) Auto-Layout
Answer: B

---

2. Dreamweaver allows integration with which Content Management System (CMS)?
A) Drupal
B) Joomla
C) WordPress
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

3. What does the ‘Check Page’ feature do in Dreamweaver?
A) Checks grammar
B) Validates code syntax
C) Checks spelling
D) Both B and C
Answer: D

---

4. Which version control system can Dreamweaver directly connect to?
A) SVN
B) Git
C) Mercurial
D) None
Answer: B

---

5. The Emmet abbreviation ul>li*3 expands to:
A) An unordered list with 3 items
B) A table
C) A dropdown menu
D) A comment block
Answer: A

---

6. Which file extension is commonly used for JavaScript files in Dreamweaver?
A) .java
B) .js
C) .script
D) .json
Answer: B

---

7. Dreamweaver allows you to connect to a remote server using:
A) FTP
B) SFTP
C) Local/Network
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

8. What is the shortcut to create a new document in Dreamweaver?
A) Ctrl + O
B) Ctrl + N
C) Ctrl + T
D) Ctrl + Shift + N
Answer: B

---

9. The tag selector in Dreamweaver is used to:
A) Select HTML tags in design view
B) Add CSS rules
C) Run JavaScript
D) Insert forms
Answer: A

---

10. Which panel allows drag-and-drop insertion of components like tables, images, and media?
A) Snippets
B) Files
C) Insert
D) Assets
Answer: C

---

11. The Dreamweaver feature that updates linked files automatically is called:
A) Auto-Update
B) File Sync
C) Live Synchronization
D) Live Link
Answer: B

---

12. Which tab allows you to toggle between open files in Dreamweaver?
A) Project Panel
B) Document Toolbar
C) Tabs Bar
D) Menu Bar
Answer: C

---

13. Dreamweaver offers built-in support for which preprocessor?
A) LESS
B) SASS
C) SCSS
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

14. The “Design Notes” feature is used to:
A) Save code
B) Track changes or reminders
C) Preview design
D) Test JavaScript
Answer: B

---

15. In Dreamweaver, the “Find and Replace” tool can search in:
A) Current document
B) All open documents
C) Entire site
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

16. Which Dreamweaver feature auto-closes HTML tags?
A) Smart Code
B) Auto Tag Close
C) Tag Complete
D) Code Intelligence
Answer: D

---

17. Dreamweaver’s “Extract” feature is primarily used with files from:
A) Illustrator
B) Photoshop
C) InDesign
D) XD
Answer: B

---

18. The “Preview in Browser” feature requires the document to be:
A) Linked
B) Saved
C) Published
D) Converted to PDF
Answer: B

---

19. Which tag is automatically added when a new HTML5 document is created?
A) <!DOCTYPE html>
B) <html5>
C) <DOCTYPE>
D) <html version=”5″>
Answer: A

---

20. The code coloring in Dreamweaver helps in:
A) Organizing folders
B) Debugging
C) Visual separation of code elements
D) Page layout
Answer: C

---

21. Dreamweaver supports real-time preview on:
A) Chrome only
B) All major browsers
C) Safari only
D) Internet Explorer only
Answer: B

---

22. What feature lets you define reusable content that updates in all instances when edited?
A) CSS
B) Library Items
C) Snippets
D) Linked Templates
Answer: B

---

23. Code collapsing in Dreamweaver helps to:
A) Hide errors
B) Minimize code blocks for easier reading
C) Preview designs
D) Run faster
Answer: B

---

24. The DOM panel stands for:
A) Domain Object Model
B) Document Object Model
C) Data-Oriented Model
D) Design-Oriented Markup
Answer: B

---

25. What does FTP stand for?
A) File Text Protocol
B) File Transfer Protocol
C) File Tracking Program
D) Formatted Text Parser
Answer: B

---

26. What is the function of a media query in CSS (within Dreamweaver)?
A) Imports fonts
B) Detects screen size for responsive design
C) Loads audio
D) Switches themes
Answer: B

---

27. What is the purpose of a Dreamweaver “Site Definition”?
A) Format the design
B) Link files together
C) Establish local and remote folder structure
D) None of the above
Answer: C

---

28. The code editor in Dreamweaver supports syntax highlighting for:
A) HTML
B) CSS
C) JavaScript
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

29. Which file extension is used for PHP files in Dreamweaver?
A) .ph
B) .php
C) .phps
D) .phtml
Answer: B

---

30. Dreamweaver’s “Responsive Design Mode” is useful for:
A) Making static sites
B) Creating SEO tags
C) Designing for multiple devices
D) Uploading files
Answer: C

---

31. In Dreamweaver, to create a hyperlink, which tag is used?
A) <link>
B) <a>
C) <href>
D) <hyper>
Answer: B

---

32. What does the abbreviation CSS stand for?
A) Computer Style Sheet
B) Cascading Style Sheet
C) Custom Style Setting
D) Creative Style System
Answer: B

---

33. The “Snippets” panel in Dreamweaver is used to:
A) Preview HTML
B) Store and reuse frequently used code
C) Insert media
D) Create animation
Answer: B

---

34. Which shortcut is used to comment out code in Dreamweaver?
A) Ctrl + Shift + /
B) Ctrl + /
C) Alt + C
D) Shift + /
Answer: B

---

35. Dreamweaver provides built-in linting support for:
A) PHP
B) HTML
C) CSS
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

36. What happens when you use the ‘Check Links Sitewide’ feature?
A) Optimizes site
B) Validates all external links
C) Checks for broken internal links
D) Deletes unused links
Answer: C

---

37. Dreamweaver uses what protocol to connect to a testing server?
A) HTTP
B) FTP/SFTP
C) SQL
D) XML
Answer: B

---

38. The Live View in Dreamweaver is powered by:
A) Internet Explorer
B) Chromium Embedded Framework
C) Mozilla Firefox
D) WebKit
Answer: B

---

39. The ‘Assets’ panel does NOT include which of the following?
A) Images
B) Scripts
C) Fonts
D) Video
Answer: C

---

40. What does the abbreviation FTP stand for?
A) File Transfer Protocol
B) Form Text Processor
C) Fast Transfer Platform
D) File Template Program
Answer: A

---

41. What does the “Synchronize” option in Dreamweaver do?
A) Reboots your server
B) Deletes unused files
C) Compares local and remote files and updates accordingly
D) Backs up data
Answer: C

---

42. The shortcut for saving a file in Dreamweaver is:
A) Ctrl + A
B) Ctrl + S
C) Ctrl + Shift + A
D) Alt + S
Answer: B

---

43. Dreamweaver’s “Insert Div” feature is available in which panel?
A) CSS Designer
B) Insert Panel
C) Files Panel
D) Snippets
Answer: B

---

44. Which of the following does Dreamweaver NOT support natively?
A) CSS Grid
B) Bootstrap
C) React Components
D) HTML5
Answer: C

---

45. Which color indicates an error in Dreamweaver’s code view?
A) Red underline
B) Blue text
C) Yellow highlight
D) Orange background
Answer: A

---

46. To upload files to a server, Dreamweaver uses:
A) Put command
B) Export command
C) Render command
D) Upload command
Answer: A

---

47. What is the default character encoding in Dreamweaver?
A) ASCII
B) UTF-8
C) ISO 8859-1
D) ANSI
Answer: B

---

48. Which Dreamweaver version introduced Git integration?
A) CS4
B) CS6
C) CC 2017
D) CC 2015
Answer: C

---

49. What is a Dreamweaver “Template Region”?
A) Editable area in a template
B) A JavaScript block
C) A fixed image size
D) A color setting
Answer: A

---

50. Which of these is a server-side language supported in Dreamweaver?
A) PHP
B) ASP
C) ColdFusion
D) All of the above
Answer: D

Here are 50 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) based on Macromedia Flash, covering fundamental concepts, tools, animation, scripting, and file formats.

---

💡 Macromedia Flash – 50 MCQs

---

1. What is Macromedia Flash primarily used for?
A) Word Processing
B) Creating animations and multimedia content
C) Spreadsheets
D) Photo Editing
Answer: B

---

2. What is the file extension for a Flash movie file?
A) .fla
B) .flv
C) .swf
D) .avi
Answer: C

---

3. The default scripting language used in Flash is:
A) JavaScript
B) ActionScript
C) FlashScript
D) VBScript
Answer: B

---

4. What is the function of the Timeline in Flash?
A) To write code
B) To manage animation sequences
C) To edit images
D) To insert hyperlinks
Answer: B

---

5. The editable source file in Flash is saved with which extension?
A) .swf
B) .fla
C) .exe
D) .mov
Answer: B

---

6. Which tool is used to draw freehand lines in Flash?
A) Pencil Tool
B) Line Tool
C) Brush Tool
D) Eraser Tool
Answer: A

---

7. The stage in Flash is:
A) A scripting panel
B) The area where content is created and displayed
C) The timeline
D) The library
Answer: B

---

8. Which panel stores reusable assets such as symbols and audio files?
A) Timeline
B) Library
C) Properties
D) History
Answer: B

---

9. What is a keyframe?
A) A type of image
B) A frame that contains change in animation
C) A button
D) A layer
Answer: B

---

10. What does SWF stand for?
A) Shockwave File
B) Small Web Format
C) Synchronized Web Flash
D) Shockwave Flash
Answer: D

---

11. Which tool is used to create vector shapes in Flash?
A) Paint Bucket
B) Selection Tool
C) Oval Tool
D) Zoom Tool
Answer: C

---

12. ActionScript is most similar in syntax to:
A) Python
B) HTML
C) JavaScript
D) PHP
Answer: C

---

13. What is the function of the “OnClick” event in Flash?
A) Plays a video
B) Executes an action when an object is clicked
C) Changes frame color
D) Opens a new file
Answer: B

---

14. A Motion Tween is used to:
A) Create shape transitions
B) Animate movement of symbols
C) Erase drawings
D) Edit text
Answer: B

---

15. What is a symbol in Flash?
A) A variable
B) A reusable object
C) A text box
D) A layer name
Answer: B

---

16. Which of these is not a type of Flash symbol?
A) Movie Clip
B) Button
C) Sound
D) Graphic
Answer: C

---

17. What does the Onion Skin feature do?
A) Applies a filter
B) Enables viewing of previous and next frames
C) Adjusts brightness
D) Locks layers
Answer: B

---

18. What is the shortcut to play an animation in Flash?
A) Ctrl + P
B) Enter
C) Spacebar
D) Ctrl + R
Answer: B

---

19. Flash animations are primarily based on:
A) Frames and layers
B) Scenes and colors
C) Videos and audio
D) None of the above
Answer: A

---

20. What is the maximum frame rate Flash allows?
A) 12 fps
B) 24 fps
C) 120 fps
D) 1000 fps
Answer: D

---

21. The Eraser tool in Flash is used to:
A) Delete symbols
B) Erase parts of objects or drawings
C) Remove keyframes
D) Erase the stage
Answer: B

---

22. What is the difference between a Frame and a Keyframe?
A) Frames are always blank
B) Keyframes contain content or actions; frames do not
C) Frames are for sound only
D) No difference
Answer: B

---

23. Which tool selects and moves objects on the Stage?
A) Text Tool
B) Free Transform Tool
C) Selection Tool
D) Pencil Tool
Answer: C

---

24. In Flash, Layers are used to:
A) Organize content
B) Adjust brightness
C) Create hyperlinks
D) Apply filters
Answer: A

---

25. Which type of tween is used to morph one shape into another?
A) Motion Tween
B) Classic Tween
C) Shape Tween
D) Fade Tween
Answer: C

---

26. The shortcut key to insert a new layer is:
A) Ctrl + N
B) F6
C) Ctrl + Shift + L
D) Insert → Layer
Answer: D

---

27. Flash movies for the web are typically embedded using:
A) JavaScript
B) HTML <embed> or <object> tags
C) CSS
D) XML
Answer: B

---

28. A symbol inside another symbol is called:
A) Child symbol
B) Nested symbol
C) Embedded symbol
D) Linked symbol
Answer: B

---

29. What is the default frame rate of a new Flash movie?
A) 24 fps
B) 12 fps
C) 30 fps
D) 15 fps
Answer: A

---

30. ActionScript is used in Flash for:
A) Painting
B) Coding interactivity
C) Exporting video
D) Changing resolution
Answer: B

---

31. A Movie Clip symbol plays:
A) On the main timeline only
B) Only when triggered
C) Independently of the main timeline
D) Once
Answer: C

---

32. Which tool is used to fill color into a shape?
A) Fill Tool
B) Paint Brush
C) Ink Bottle
D) Paint Bucket
Answer: D

---

33. The Flash Publish Settings dialog allows you to:
A) Modify file names
B) Choose output formats like .swf and .html
C) Write scripts
D) Insert new scenes
Answer: B

---

34. The term “Stage Size” refers to:
A) Memory used
B) The resolution of the animation
C) Number of scenes
D) Font size
Answer: B

---

35. What is the shortcut for inserting a keyframe?
A) F6
B) F5
C) F7
D) Ctrl + K
Answer: A

---

36. Which of the following is NOT a panel in Flash?
A) Library
B) Timeline
C) Layers
D) Dashboard
Answer: D

---

37. The “Break Apart” option in Flash is used to:
A) Delete layers
B) Convert grouped objects into separate elements
C) Clear the timeline
D) Remove filters
Answer: B

---

38. What is a Flash Scene?
A) A web page
B) A segment of an animation
C) A script
D) A keyframe
Answer: B

---

39. What does the Text Tool in Flash do?
A) Creates image captions
B) Writes text on the stage
C) Opens a file
D) Adds keyframes
Answer: B

---

40. ActionScript versions in Flash include:
A) 1.0, 2.0, and 3.0
B) 1.0 only
C) Only JavaScript-based
D) Python-based
Answer: A

---

41. Flash supports which image formats?
A) .jpg
B) .png
C) .gif
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

42. What happens if you apply a shape tween to a symbol?
A) It morphs correctly
B) It causes an error
C) It plays faster
D) It deletes the symbol
Answer: B

---

43. What is the use of the “Insert Frame” command?
A) Add a new frame without keyframe
B) Insert a new keyframe
C) Add a motion path
D) Add a new layer
Answer: A

---

44. Which is NOT a publishing format in Flash?
A) .swf
B) .html
C) .exe
D) .docx
Answer: D

---

45. The ‘Align Panel’ in Flash is used to:
A) Align objects on stage
B) Align frames
C) Align scenes
D) Align symbols only
Answer: A

---

46. The “Test Movie” command in Flash is used to:
A) Check for spelling errors
B) Run the animation in a preview window
C) Export the file
D) Create thumbnails
Answer: B

---

47. Flash Player is needed to:
A) Write Flash files
B) Edit Flash content
C) Play .swf files
D) Open HTML files
Answer: C

---

48. What is the Publish command shortcut?
A) Ctrl + Shift + Enter
B) Ctrl + Enter
C) F12
D) Alt + F12
Answer: C

---

49. What is a Button symbol used for?
A) Draw objects
B) Trigger user actions
C) Animate images
D) Import files
Answer: B

---

50. The Timeline is divided into:
A) Layers and tools
B) Layers and frames
C) Frames and scenes
D) Symbols and objects
Answer: B

Here are 50 more Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) based on Macromedia Flash, expanding on tools, scripting, animation techniques, and advanced features:

---

🔄 Macromedia Flash – 50 Additional MCQs

---

1. What does the Free Transform tool allow you to do?
A) Select multiple objects
B) Move frames
C) Scale, rotate, and skew objects
D) Change stroke color
Answer: C

---

2. Which shortcut allows you to test your Flash movie quickly?
A) F5
B) Ctrl + Enter
C) F12
D) Alt + T
Answer: B

---

3. In Flash, what is the purpose of the Movie Explorer panel?
A) Organize audio files
B) Preview animations
C) Display a hierarchical view of movie elements
D) Insert code snippets
Answer: C

---

4. Which feature allows you to reuse the same animation in multiple places?
A) Scenes
B) Layers
C) Symbols
D) Masks
Answer: C

---

5. What is the role of an Instance in Flash?
A) Duplicate file
B) An occurrence of a symbol placed on the stage
C) Backup copy
D) Separate animation
Answer: B

---

6. How do you identify a keyframe on the Timeline?
A) It’s blank
B) It has a filled circle
C) It has a triangle
D) It has a lightning bolt
Answer: B

---

7. What is a Blank Keyframe?
A) Keyframe without content
B) Frame with symbol
C) Looping frame
D) Final frame
Answer: A

---

8. The Pen Tool is used to:
A) Draw freehand lines
B) Create straight and curved lines
C) Fill objects
D) Apply gradients
Answer: B

---

9. Which Flash tool allows adding gradient color fills?
A) Fill Tool
B) Gradient Tool
C) Paint Bucket Tool
D) Ink Bottle Tool
Answer: C

---

10. What’s the function of the Ink Bottle Tool?
A) Erase outlines
B) Apply stroke to shapes
C) Mix colors
D) Export files
Answer: B

---

11. What does “Scene” mean in Flash?
A) A static background
B) A segment of an animation
C) A new file
D) A filter
Answer: B

---

12. In ActionScript, which event detects mouse clicks?
A) onMouseMove
B) onClick
C) onMouseDown
D) onRelease
Answer: D

---

13. The ‘Hit’ state in a button symbol defines:
A) The text shown
B) The clickable area
C) The sound used
D) The script executed
Answer: B

---

14. What is the default Stage color in Flash?
A) White
B) Gray
C) Blue
D) Black
Answer: A

---

15. What is a Movie Clip symbol mainly used for?
A) Backgrounds
B) Sound playback
C) Independent animation
D) Button creation
Answer: C

---

16. The “Properties” panel is used to:
A) Display all code
B) Preview scenes
C) View and edit attributes of selected objects
D) Export movie
Answer: C

---

17. What is “Scripting” in Flash?
A) Drawing shapes
B) Writing ActionScript to control animation
C) Compressing files
D) Adding background music
Answer: B

---

18. Which feature in Flash helps optimize file size?
A) Symbols and instances
B) Vector images
C) SWF format
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

19. The ‘Distribute to Layers’ command is used for:
A) Reordering files
B) Moving objects to separate layers
C) Deleting layers
D) Copying frames
Answer: B

---

20. To convert an object into a symbol, you use:
A) F8
B) F5
C) Ctrl + B
D) Alt + S
Answer: A

---

21. Which tool is used to zoom in and out in Flash?
A) Selection Tool
B) Zoom Tool
C) Free Transform Tool
D) Subselection Tool
Answer: B

---

22. What is a frame-by-frame animation?
A) Scripted animation
B) Tween-based animation
C) Animation where each frame is drawn separately
D) Video file
Answer: C

---

23. The Library panel in Flash stores:
A) Brushes and gradients
B) External URLs
C) Symbols, sounds, and videos
D) Code snippets
Answer: C

---

24. What are Layers mainly used for?
A) Adding scripts
B) Adding transitions
C) Organizing artwork and animations
D) Adjusting brightness
Answer: C

---

25. How do you add interactivity to Flash elements?
A) Filters
B) Drawing tools
C) ActionScript
D) Layers
Answer: C

---

26. The Publish command generates which two files by default?
A) .fla and .html
B) .swf and .html
C) .swf and .exe
D) .fla and .swf
Answer: B

---

27. What is a mask layer?
A) A layer that hides others
B) A layer that shows only selected portions of underlying layers
C) A locked layer
D) A sound layer
Answer: B

---

28. Which panel is used to apply filters like blur and glow?
A) Filters panel
B) Timeline
C) Library
D) Properties
Answer: A

---

29. Which Flash feature allows sound to synchronize with animation?
A) Button states
B) Timeline
C) ActionScript
D) Stream Sync
Answer: D

---

30. SWF files can be opened using:
A) Adobe Acrobat
B) Windows Media Player
C) Flash Player or browser plugin
D) Paint
Answer: C

---

31. What is the action to stop a movie in ActionScript?
A) pause();
B) end();
C) stop();
D) halt();
Answer: C

---

32. What tool allows curved line creation?
A) Brush Tool
B) Pen Tool
C) Line Tool
D) Subselection Tool
Answer: B

---

33. What Flash panel provides frame-by-frame playback control?
A) Timeline
B) Library
C) Properties
D) Actions
Answer: A

---

34. What does the ActionScript function gotoAndPlay(1) do?
A) Stops the movie
B) Goes to frame 1 and continues playing
C) Loops the movie
D) Opens a new scene
Answer: B

---

35. Tweening requires how many keyframes?
A) None
B) One
C) Two or more
D) As many as needed
Answer: C

---

36. The “Insert → Timeline → Layer” menu option does what?
A) Adds a new frame
B) Deletes a layer
C) Adds a new layer
D) Inserts an audio track
Answer: C

---

37. What is the difference between a Movie Clip and a Button symbol?
A) Movie Clips are interactive
B) Button symbols have predefined states
C) Buttons are not used in animation
D) No difference
Answer: B

---

38. The FPS setting in Flash determines:
A) File size
B) Sound quality
C) Playback speed
D) Color depth
Answer: C

---

39. You can animate text in Flash by:
A) Applying Motion Tween
B) Using Shape Tween
C) Converting it to symbol
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

40. ActionScript commands are written in the:
A) Library panel
B) Tools bar
C) Actions panel
D) Timeline
Answer: C

---

41. The ‘Break Apart’ command can convert text to:
A) WordArt
B) Individual letters and vector shapes
C) Grouped symbols
D) Layers
Answer: B

---

42. Which ActionScript event triggers when a button is pressed?
A) onRollOver
B) onDrag
C) onRelease
D) onLoad
Answer: C

---

43. Movie Clip symbols have:
A) No timeline
B) An independent timeline
C) Shared timeline
D) Only one frame
Answer: B

---

44. Which option exports Flash content as a standalone application?
A) Publish to SWF
B) Export as .exe
C) Save as HTML
D) Print
Answer: B

---

45. Sound in Flash can be imported as:
A) .mp3
B) .wav
C) .aiff
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

46. ActionScript code is case-sensitive.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A

---

47. A Button symbol contains how many states by default?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer: C (Up, Over, Down, Hit)

---

48. Flash supports which type of scripting environment?
A) Server-side
B) Client-side
C) Dual
D) None
Answer: B

---

49. To preview a scene without publishing, you use:
A) Scene Preview
B) Test Scene
C) Ctrl + Enter
D) Ctrl + Shift + Enter
Answer: B

---

50. What does “Export Movie” option allow?
A) Export as .fla
B) Export as .gif, .avi, .mov, etc.
C) Create buttons
D) Edit video
Answer: B

Here are 50 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) based on Computer Hardware and Networking, covering components, devices, protocols, ports, and basic networking concepts.

---

🖥️ Computer Hardware and Networking – 50 MCQs

---

1. Which of the following is an input device?
A) Monitor
B) Printer
C) Keyboard
D) Speaker
Answer: C

---

2. What does CPU stand for?
A) Central Process Unit
B) Central Processing Unit
C) Computer Power Unit
D) Core Programming Unit
Answer: B

---

3. What is the primary function of RAM?
A) Store permanent data
B) Run operating systems
C) Store temporary data for quick access
D) Back up data
Answer: C

---

4. Which memory is non-volatile and stores the BIOS?
A) RAM
B) ROM
C) Cache
D) Hard Drive
Answer: B

---

5. Which device connects a computer to a network?
A) CPU
B) NIC
C) PSU
D) USB
Answer: B (NIC = Network Interface Card)

---

6. Which of the following is a storage device?
A) Mouse
B) Monitor
C) SSD
D) Router
Answer: C

---

7. What does HDMI stand for?
A) High Dynamic Media Interface
B) High Definition Multimedia Interface
C) High Device Management Interface
D) High Data Memory Interface
Answer: B

---

8. Which port is used to connect a printer?
A) HDMI
B) USB
C) VGA
D) LAN
Answer: B

---

9. Which of the following is a transmission medium?
A) Hub
B) Switch
C) Ethernet cable
D) NIC
Answer: C

---

10. Which device forwards data packets between computer networks?
A) Switch
B) Router
C) Hub
D) Repeater
Answer: B

---

11. What is the function of a firewall?
A) Increase internet speed
B) Protect from unauthorized access
C) Filter spam emails
D) Scan for viruses
Answer: B

---

12. Which network device operates at OSI Layer 2?
A) Hub
B) Switch
C) Router
D) Firewall
Answer: B

---

13. What does IP stand for?
A) Internal Protocol
B) Internet Provider
C) Internet Protocol
D) Internal Provider
Answer: C

---

14. Which of the following is NOT an operating system?
A) Windows
B) Linux
C) MacOS
D) Intel
Answer: D

---

15. What does MAC address stand for?
A) Media Access Control
B) Machine Access Code
C) Main Address Controller
D) Medium Assignment Code
Answer: A

---

16. Which protocol is used to assign IP addresses automatically?
A) DNS
B) DHCP
C) FTP
D) HTTP
Answer: B

---

17. Which device strengthens a signal in a network?
A) Hub
B) Switch
C) Repeater
D) Bridge
Answer: C

---

18. What is the function of a modem?
A) Connects RAM to CPU
B) Modulates and demodulates signals
C) Cools down the system
D) Manages user accounts
Answer: B

---

19. Which cable is used in wired LAN connections?
A) VGA
B) Coaxial
C) HDMI
D) Ethernet
Answer: D

---

20. Which of the following is a web browser?
A) Firefox
B) Skype
C) Outlook
D) Zoom
Answer: A

---

21. What unit is used to measure CPU speed?
A) Byte
B) GHz
C) Mbps
D) RPM
Answer: B

---

22. Which connector is commonly used for monitors?
A) VGA
B) RJ45
C) USB
D) HDMI
Answer: A

---

23. Which device translates domain names to IP addresses?
A) DHCP
B) DNS
C) HTTP
D) ISP
Answer: B

---

24. Which of these is an example of solid-state storage?
A) CD
B) Floppy
C) SSD
D) HDD
Answer: C

---

25. What is the default port for HTTP?
A) 23
B) 80
C) 443
D) 25
Answer: B

---

26. What type of device is a scanner?
A) Input
B) Output
C) Storage
D) Processing
Answer: A

---

27. What is the full form of USB?
A) Universal Standard Bus
B) Unified Serial Bus
C) Universal Serial Bus
D) Uniform Service Bridge
Answer: C

---

28. What component provides power to the computer?
A) CPU
B) RAM
C) PSU
D) NIC
Answer: C (PSU = Power Supply Unit)

---

29. What is the speed of Fast Ethernet?
A) 10 Mbps
B) 100 Mbps
C) 1 Gbps
D) 10 Gbps
Answer: B

---

30. Which of the following stores the OS and software permanently?
A) RAM
B) ROM
C) Hard Disk
D) Cache
Answer: C

---

31. What is the function of BIOS?
A) Manage graphics
B) Load the operating system
C) Control software updates
D) Handle user passwords
Answer: B

---

32. Which device is used to amplify or regenerate signals in a network?
A) Hub
B) Repeater
C) Switch
D) Modem
Answer: B

---

33. What type of IP address is 192.168.0.1?
A) Public
B) Static
C) Private
D) Global
Answer: C

---

34. Which tool helps diagnose network issues?
A) Paint
B) Ping
C) Photoshop
D) Notepad
Answer: B

---

35. Which protocol is used for secure web browsing?
A) HTTP
B) HTTPS
C) FTP
D) DNS
Answer: B

---

36. Which device is used to create a wireless network?
A) Switch
B) Wireless Router
C) NIC
D) Hub
Answer: B

---

37. The speed of a hard drive is typically measured in:
A) GHz
B) Mbps
C) RPM
D) Kbps
Answer: C

---

38. Which of these uses an RJ45 connector?
A) HDMI cable
B) Ethernet cable
C) VGA cable
D) USB cable
Answer: B

---

39. What does LAN stand for?
A) Long Area Network
B) Local Area Network
C) Large Access Network
D) Logical Area Network
Answer: B

---

40. What is the main function of a switch in a network?
A) Transfer data using IP
B) Divide the network into zones
C) Connect multiple devices intelligently
D) Provide internet
Answer: C

---

41. What is the primary function of cache memory?
A) Store permanent files
B) Store deleted files
C) Store frequently accessed data for quick access
D) Backup old data
Answer: C

---

42. What does WAN stand for?
A) Wide Area Network
B) Wired Area Node
C) Web Access Network
D) Wireless Area Network
Answer: A

---

43. Which of the following is NOT a valid IP address?
A) 192.168.1.1
B) 172.16.0.256
C) 10.0.0.1
D) 8.8.8.8
Answer: B (256 is out of range)

---

44. Which layer in OSI model handles routing?
A) Physical
B) Data Link
C) Network
D) Transport
Answer: C

---

45. Which type of RAM is faster and more expensive?
A) DDR
B) SRAM
C) DRAM
D) SDR
Answer: B

---

46. Which cable type supports the longest transmission distance?
A) Twisted Pair
B) Coaxial
C) Fiber Optic
D) HDMI
Answer: C

---

47. Which tool is used to test connectivity between two systems?
A) CMD
B) Ping
C) ARP
D) Format
Answer: B

---

48. Which part of the computer executes instructions?
A) RAM
B) CPU
C) HDD
D) SSD
Answer: B

---

49. What type of device is a router?
A) Passive
B) Active
C) Manual
D) None
Answer: B

---

50. What is the speed of Gigabit Ethernet?
A) 10 Mbps
B) 100 Mbps
C) 1000 Mbps
D) 10,000 Mbps
Answer: C

Here are 50 more MCQs based on Computer Hardware and Networking, covering intermediate topics, tools, components, protocols, and configurations:

---

🖥️ Computer Hardware and Networking – MCQs (Set 2)

---

1. What does SATA stand for?
A) Serial Advanced Technology Adapter
B) Standard Array Transfer Adapter
C) Serial ATA Transfer Adapter
D) Synchronous Array Technology Access
Answer: A

---

2. Which device is used to connect two different networks?
A) Switch
B) Bridge
C) Router
D) Repeater
Answer: C

---

3. The POST process in a computer takes place during:
A) Shutdown
B) Booting
C) Installing software
D) Formatting
Answer: B

---

4. Which bus is responsible for communication between CPU and memory?
A) Control Bus
B) Address Bus
C) Data Bus
D) System Bus
Answer: D

---

5. The main circuit board in a computer is known as:
A) RAM
B) CPU
C) Motherboard
D) Hard Drive
Answer: C

---

6. Which device can store the largest amount of data?
A) CD
B) DVD
C) USB drive
D) Hard Disk Drive
Answer: D

---

7. Which type of network topology has a central hub?
A) Bus
B) Ring
C) Star
D) Mesh
Answer: C

---

8. In binary, 1 byte equals:
A) 4 bits
B) 8 bits
C) 16 bits
D) 32 bits
Answer: B

---

9. Which component controls all other components in a computer?
A) CPU
B) RAM
C) ROM
D) HDD
Answer: A

---

10. What does the acronym HTTP stand for?
A) HyperText Transfer Protocol
B) HyperTool Transfer Protocol
C) HighText Transfer Protocol
D) Hyper Transfer Text Protocol
Answer: A

---

11. Which of the following is not a type of computer port?
A) USB
B) HDMI
C) RJ11
D) DDR
Answer: D

---

12. What is the typical function of a UPS?
A) Increase internet speed
B) Prevent data loss during power failure
C) Connect multiple devices
D) Extend wireless signal
Answer: B

---

13. What is the primary use of a NIC?
A) Storing files
B) Inputting text
C) Connecting to a network
D) Displaying video
Answer: C

---

14. What does DNS stand for?
A) Dynamic Network Server
B) Domain Name System
C) Domain Network System
D) Data Network Security
Answer: B

---

15. Which memory is fastest to access?
A) RAM
B) ROM
C) Cache
D) HDD
Answer: C

---

16. Which of these is not an input device?
A) Microphone
B) Mouse
C) Speaker
D) Keyboard
Answer: C

---

17. Which tool is used to check physical connectivity in networking?
A) Ping
B) Loopback
C) Cable tester
D) Tracert
Answer: C

---

18. RJ45 connector is used with:
A) Fiber cables
B) USB cables
C) Ethernet cables
D) Coaxial cables
Answer: C

---

19. Which of these uses light signals for data transmission?
A) Coaxial cable
B) Twisted pair
C) Fiber optic cable
D) Ethernet cable
Answer: C

---

20. Which device is used to reduce network traffic?
A) Hub
B) Switch
C) Router
D) Repeater
Answer: B

---

21. Which device operates on the physical layer of OSI model?
A) Hub
B) Switch
C) Router
D) Firewall
Answer: A

---

22. Which command shows the IP configuration of a Windows PC?
A) netstat
B) ping
C) ipconfig
D) nslookup
Answer: C

---

23. Which of the following is a type of RAM?
A) SSD
B) DDR
C) BIOS
D) ROM
Answer: B

---

24. The default port for HTTPS is:
A) 443
B) 80
C) 21
D) 23
Answer: A

---

25. Which of these is volatile memory?
A) RAM
B) ROM
C) SSD
D) Hard disk
Answer: A

---

26. Which command shows the route taken by packets on a network?
A) ping
B) nslookup
C) tracert
D) netstat
Answer: C

---

27. The core component of an operating system that interacts with hardware is:
A) Driver
B) Kernel
C) Shell
D) File system
Answer: B

---

28. Which protocol is used for file transfers?
A) FTP
B) SMTP
C) SNMP
D) DHCP
Answer: A

---

29. Which device extends a LAN without filtering traffic?
A) Hub
B) Router
C) Switch
D) Firewall
Answer: A

---

30. How many pins does a typical SATA data cable have?
A) 4
B) 7
C) 15
D) 24
Answer: B

---

31. Which wireless standard offers the highest speed?
A) 802.11a
B) 802.11b
C) 802.11g
D) 802.11ac
Answer: D

---

32. What is the maximum length of a CAT6 Ethernet cable?
A) 10 meters
B) 100 meters
C) 500 meters
D) 1000 meters
Answer: B

---

33. Which one is not a valid storage interface?
A) SATA
B) IDE
C) USB
D) VNC
Answer: D

---

34. What does VPN stand for?
A) Virtual Private Network
B) Virtual Public Network
C) Visual Private Network
D) Variable Protected Network
Answer: A

---

35. What is the purpose of thermal paste in a computer?
A) Glue parts together
B) Increase voltage
C) Cool down the CPU
D) Boost performance
Answer: C

---

36. Which software allows multiple OS installations?
A) Compiler
B) Emulator
C) Virtual Machine
D) BIOS
Answer: C

---

37. What is the binary value of the decimal number 13?
A) 1011
B) 1101
C) 1110
D) 1001
Answer: B

---

38. Which one is NOT a network protocol?
A) TCP
B) IP
C) HTTP
D) BIOS
Answer: D

---

39. What does CLI stand for in computing?
A) Client-Level Interface
B) Command Line Interface
C) Command Level Interpreter
D) Client Language Input
Answer: B

---

40. Which storage has no moving parts?
A) HDD
B) CD-ROM
C) SSD
D) Tape Drive
Answer: C

---

41. Which is a type of expansion slot?
A) PCI
B) SSD
C) USB
D) HDMI
Answer: A

---

42. Which device requires a crossover cable for direct connection?
A) Switch to switch
B) PC to switch
C) Router to PC
D) Switch to printer
Answer: A

---

43. What is the full form of CMOS?
A) Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor
B) Computer Memory Output System
C) Central Metal Output Storage
D) Core Memory Operating System
Answer: A

---

44. What is the main function of an operating system?
A) Store documents
B) Control hardware and software
C) Protect system from viruses
D) Run PowerPoint
Answer: B

---

45. What is the hexadecimal value of 255?
A) FF
B) AA
C) 1A
D) 00
Answer: A

---

46. In IP addressing, what class does 192.168.1.1 belong to?
A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C
D) Class D
Answer: C

---

47. Which of these is not an antivirus software?
A) Avast
B) Norton
C) McAfee
D) BIOS
Answer: D

---

48. What does the ‘ping’ command test?
A) Bandwidth
B) IP assignment
C) Connectivity
D) DNS resolution
Answer: C

---

49. How many devices can be connected in a star topology?
A) 1
B) 2
C) Unlimited (limited by hardware)
D) 3
Answer: C

---

50. Which device ensures uninterrupted power supply?
A) UPS
B) PSU
C) SSD
D) HDD
Answer: A

Here are 50 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) based on Windows 7—covering features, tools, settings, interface, system management, and general usage:

---

🖥️ Windows 7 – MCQs (Set 1)

---

1. What is the default file system used in Windows 7?
A) FAT32
B) NTFS
C) EXT4
D) HFS
Answer: B

---

2. Which feature allows you to preview the contents of a window by hovering over its taskbar icon?
A) Aero Peek
B) Task Switcher
C) Aero Snap
D) Aero Flip
Answer: A

---

3. What is the purpose of the ‘Snipping Tool’ in Windows 7?
A) Record audio
B) Take screenshots
C) Edit videos
D) Manage files
Answer: B

---

4. Which Windows 7 edition includes BitLocker encryption?
A) Home Basic
B) Professional
C) Ultimate
D) Starter
Answer: C

---

5. What does the ‘Gadgets’ feature in Windows 7 provide?
A) Control panel shortcuts
B) Desktop mini-applications
C) Toolbar extensions
D) Printer options
Answer: B

---

6. What key combination opens the Task Manager directly?
A) Ctrl + Shift + Esc
B) Alt + F4
C) Ctrl + Alt + Del
D) Win + R
Answer: A

---

7. What is the default web browser in Windows 7?
A) Firefox
B) Chrome
C) Internet Explorer
D) Safari
Answer: C

---

8. Which tool is used to restore Windows settings and system files?
A) Task Manager
B) System Restore
C) Device Manager
D) Disk Cleanup
Answer: B

---

9. What is ‘Windows Explorer’ used for?
A) Browsing the Internet
B) Exploring system BIOS
C) Managing files and folders
D) Viewing help files
Answer: C

---

10. What does the ‘Start Menu’ in Windows 7 include by default?
A) Shutdown button
B) Live tiles
C) Sticky Notes
D) Virtual desktops
Answer: A

---

11. What is the function of ‘Aero Snap’?
A) Capture screenshots
B) Snap windows to screen edges
C) Install apps
D) Switch between programs
Answer: B

---

12. Which Windows 7 feature allows you to view open windows in a 3D stack?
A) Aero Peek
B) Aero Flip
C) Aero Shake
D) Task View
Answer: B

---

13. Which utility allows partitioning and formatting of disks in Windows 7?
A) Disk Cleanup
B) Disk Management
C) Format Wizard
D) Partition Tool
Answer: B

---

14. Which command opens the Run dialog box?
A) Ctrl + R
B) Win + R
C) Alt + R
D) Ctrl + Alt + R
Answer: B

---

15. The sidebar with mini-applications in Windows 7 is called:
A) App Bar
B) Widget Tray
C) Desktop Gadgets
D) Notification Center
Answer: C

---

16. What is the minimum RAM requirement for Windows 7 32-bit?
A) 256 MB
B) 512 MB
C) 1 GB
D) 2 GB
Answer: C

---

17. Which component displays notification area icons and time?
A) Taskbar
B) Start Menu
C) Sidebar
D) Desktop
Answer: A

---

18. How can you search for files and applications in Windows 7?
A) Windows Media Player
B) Control Panel
C) Start Menu search box
D) Windows Explorer
Answer: C

---

19. Which version of Windows 7 is most suitable for home users with basic needs?
A) Ultimate
B) Professional
C) Starter
D) Enterprise
Answer: C

---

20. Which tool is used for removing unnecessary files from your hard drive?
A) Disk Management
B) Disk Cleanup
C) Disk Defragmenter
D) File Explorer
Answer: B

---

21. Which feature minimizes all other windows except the one you’re working on?
A) Aero Peek
B) Aero Flip
C) Aero Shake
D) Aero Snap
Answer: C

---

22. What is the default extension for a text file created with Notepad?
A) .doc
B) .rtf
C) .txt
D) .bat
Answer: C

---

23. What is the purpose of Device Manager?
A) Monitor CPU performance
B) Update Windows
C) Manage hardware drivers
D) View installed applications
Answer: C

---

24. Where can you adjust the screen resolution in Windows 7?
A) Device Manager
B) Taskbar Settings
C) Personalization > Display
D) Internet Options
Answer: C

---

25. What is the command to open the Command Prompt?
A) cmd
B) run
C) prompt
D) shell
Answer: A

---

26. What is the purpose of ‘Windows Update’?
A) Install new software
B) Back up data
C) Update OS and drivers
D) Clean registry
Answer: C

---

27. Which Windows 7 utility is used for viewing event logs?
A) Task Manager
B) Performance Monitor
C) Event Viewer
D) Services
Answer: C

---

28. What is the shortcut to lock your computer in Windows 7?
A) Ctrl + L
B) Alt + L
C) Win + L
D) Shift + L
Answer: C

---

29. Which option allows switching to a different user account without closing applications?
A) Log off
B) Switch user
C) Shutdown
D) Restart
Answer: B

---

30. What does the Control Panel allow you to do?
A) Surf the web
B) Change system settings
C) Play media
D) Write documents
Answer: B

---

31. Which shortcut maximizes the current window?
A) Win + ↑
B) Alt + F4
C) Ctrl + M
D) Win + M
Answer: A

---

32. What does the ‘Services’ utility manage?
A) User accounts
B) Running background processes
C) Display settings
D) Hard disk space
Answer: B

---

33. How can you access the Task Scheduler in Windows 7?
A) Control Panel > Administrative Tools
B) Start > Accessories
C) Right-click desktop
D) Run > tsched
Answer: A

---

34. Which application is used to play videos and music by default?
A) Media Player Classic
B) Windows Media Player
C) VLC
D) Groove Music
Answer: B

---

35. What is ‘Action Center’ used for?
A) Managing files
B) Controlling user accounts
C) Viewing security and maintenance notifications
D) Accessing internet settings
Answer: C

---

36. What does UAC stand for in Windows 7?
A) User Access Control
B) Unified Account Center
C) User Account Control
D) Universal Access Control
Answer: C

---

37. What is the maximum RAM supported by Windows 7 64-bit Home Premium?
A) 4 GB
B) 8 GB
C) 16 GB
D) 192 GB
Answer: C

---

38. Which Windows 7 feature allows backward compatibility with older programs?
A) XP Mode
B) Safe Mode
C) Compatibility Center
D) Program Manager
Answer: A

---

39. Which tool can be used to back up personal files in Windows 7?
A) System Restore
B) Backup and Restore
C) Task Scheduler
D) Event Viewer
Answer: B

---

40. What is the function of the ‘Run’ command?
A) Launch files and programs directly
B) Format hard drives
C) View system specs
D) Install updates
Answer: A

---

41. What is the shortcut for refreshing a window in Windows 7?
A) F4
B) F5
C) F6
D) F7
Answer: B

---

42. How can you display hidden files and folders?
A) Control Panel > Folder Options > View
B) Run > hidefiles
C) Start Menu > Hidden Tools
D) Desktop > Show Hidden
Answer: A

---

43. Which tool is used for diagnosing system memory problems?
A) Task Manager
B) Event Viewer
C) Windows Memory Diagnostic
D) Disk Cleanup
Answer: C

---

44. Which edition of Windows 7 is designed for small businesses?
A) Starter
B) Home Basic
C) Professional
D) Ultimate
Answer: C

---

45. Which key opens the Start Menu?
A) Ctrl
B) Shift
C) Esc
D) Windows Key
Answer: D

---

46. What is ‘Sticky Notes’ used for in Windows 7?
A) Creating Word documents
B) Taking quick notes
C) Browsing the web
D) Recording audio
Answer: B

---

47. What does the term “pin to taskbar” mean?
A) Lock the screen
B) Attach an app shortcut to the taskbar
C) Create a shortcut on the desktop
D) Move files
Answer: B

---

48. What is the purpose of ‘Disk Defragmenter’?
A) Format disk
B) Clean up temp files
C) Rearrange fragmented data
D) Encrypt drives
Answer: C

---

49. Which tool displays CPU and memory usage in real-time?
A) Device Manager
B) Control Panel
C) Task Manager
D) Command Prompt
Answer: C

---

50. What does the ‘Hibernate’ option do?
A) Shuts down without saving
B) Logs out the user
C) Saves session to disk and powers off
D) Restarts the PC
Answer: C

Here are 50 more Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) based on Windows 7, covering system features, settings, security, administration, and general usage:

---

🖥️ Windows 7 – MCQs (Set 2)

---

1. Which utility allows you to uninstall or change installed programs?
A) Services
B) Task Scheduler
C) Programs and Features
D) Disk Management
Answer: C

---

2. Which type of account has the highest level of control in Windows 7?
A) Standard user
B) Guest
C) Administrator
D) Limited user
Answer: C

---

3. Which of these is not a Windows 7 edition?
A) Ultimate
B) Home Basic
C) Pro Plus
D) Enterprise
Answer: C

---

4. What does the ‘Ease of Access Center’ provide?
A) File compression
B) Accessibility options for disabled users
C) Network configuration
D) Performance monitoring
Answer: B

---

5. What happens when you press Win + D in Windows 7?
A) Opens Device Manager
B) Minimizes all windows
C) Opens desktop properties
D) Locks the computer
Answer: B

---

6. Which Windows feature allows you to recover a previous version of a file?
A) Windows Backup
B) Previous Versions
C) File History
D) System Image
Answer: B

---

7. Which utility would you use to stop unnecessary programs from running at startup?
A) MSConfig
B) Control Panel
C) Task Manager
D) Windows Update
Answer: A

---

8. What file extension do Windows 7 shortcuts have?
A) .exe
B) .bat
C) .lnk
D) .url
Answer: C

---

9. The Windows 7 search index is used to:
A) Compress files
B) Delete old files
C) Make searching faster
D) Encrypt files
Answer: C

---

10. Which one is a disk compression tool in Windows 7?
A) WinRAR
B) Disk Cleanup
C) Compact.exe
D) Defrag
Answer: C

---

11. Which Windows 7 feature reduces power consumption by turning off the monitor or hard disks?
A) Hibernate
B) Sleep
C) Aero Snap
D) Task Scheduler
Answer: B

---

12. What does UAC do in Windows 7?
A) Displays CPU usage
B) Prevents unauthorized changes
C) Optimizes startup
D) Updates drivers
Answer: B

---

13. What is the minimum processor requirement for Windows 7?
A) 800 MHz
B) 1 GHz
C) 1.2 GHz
D) 2 GHz
Answer: B

---

14. Which tool is used to control background programs and processes?
A) Disk Management
B) Event Viewer
C) Task Manager
D) Device Manager
Answer: C

---

15. What type of network is commonly used in home environments in Windows 7?
A) Work network
B) Domain
C) Public network
D) Home network
Answer: D

---

16. What is the purpose of ‘System Configuration Utility’?
A) Format drives
B) Set file permissions
C) Manage startup and boot settings
D) Install drivers
Answer: C

---

17. How do you open the Control Panel in Windows 7?
A) Win + R > type control
B) Right-click desktop
C) Press F1
D) Win + D
Answer: A

---

18. Which tool in Windows 7 checks the hard disk for errors?
A) Disk Cleanup
B) Disk Management
C) CHKDSK
D) MSCONFIG
Answer: C

---

19. Which folder stores personal files by default in Windows 7?
A) Program Files
B) Users
C) Windows
D) AppData
Answer: B

---

20. Which one is a hidden system folder in Windows 7?
A) Documents
B) Recycle Bin
C) Downloads
D) Pictures
Answer: B

---

21. What is the shortcut for the Windows Help and Support window?
A) F1
B) F5
C) Ctrl + H
D) Win + F1
Answer: A

---

22. What does the ‘Safely Remove Hardware’ option do?
A) Shuts down Windows
B) Installs new hardware
C) Ejects external drives safely
D) Uninstalls a program
Answer: C

---

23. Which folder contains temporary files?
A) Temp
B) Recycle Bin
C) My Documents
D) System32
Answer: A

---

24. What kind of file is .msi in Windows 7?
A) Image file
B) Audio file
C) Windows installer package
D) Script file
Answer: C

---

25. Where can you change Windows 7 themes?
A) Internet Options
B) Taskbar Settings
C) Personalization
D) System Properties
Answer: C

---

26. What does Aero Shake do?
A) Displays desktop
B) Maximizes all windows
C) Minimizes all except the active window
D) Rotates windows
Answer: C

---

27. Which Windows 7 tool provides real-time protection against malware?
A) Action Center
B) Windows Defender
C) Firewall
D) Internet Options
Answer: B

---

28. Which type of user account has limited permissions?
A) Guest
B) Admin
C) Superuser
D) Root
Answer: A

---

29. What is the function of Task Scheduler?
A) Schedule Windows updates
B) Schedule program executions
C) Monitor processes
D) Defragment disks
Answer: B

---

30. Where can you manage printers in Windows 7?
A) Devices and Printers
B) Internet Options
C) Display Settings
D) Windows Media Center
Answer: A

---

31. What does ‘Sleep’ mode do?
A) Turns off PC
B) Logs out
C) Saves state to RAM
D) Deletes temp files
Answer: C

---

32. What is the function of ‘Device Manager’?
A) Add users
B) Configure printers
C) View and update drivers
D) Change screen resolution
Answer: C

---

33. Which edition of Windows 7 supports joining a domain?
A) Home Premium
B) Starter
C) Professional
D) Home Basic
Answer: C

---

34. What tool is used for troubleshooting sound issues?
A) Volume Mixer
B) Device Manager
C) Sound Troubleshooter
D) Control Panel
Answer: C

---

35. Which file contains system configuration in Windows 7?
A) win.ini
B) config.sys
C) msconfig.exe
D) system.ini
Answer: C

---

36. What happens when you press Win + E?
A) Opens Explorer
B) Opens Email
C) Opens Event Viewer
D) Opens Excel
Answer: A

---

37. What tool allows you to restore system settings to an earlier date?
A) Task Manager
B) System Restore
C) Action Center
D) Windows Update
Answer: B

---

38. What is the default location for system files in Windows 7?
A) C:\System
B) C:\Windows
C) C:\Program Files
D) C:\Users
Answer: B

---

39. Which protocol is commonly used to connect to a network in Windows 7?
A) FTP
B) TCP/IP
C) HTTP
D) SMTP
Answer: B

---

40. Which of the following is a valid Windows 7 file system?
A) HFS+
B) EXT3
C) NTFS
D) XFS
Answer: C

---

41. What tool is used to set Windows Firewall rules?
A) Action Center
B) Windows Firewall
C) Device Manager
D) MSConfig
Answer: B

---

42. Which of the following is a default library in Windows 7?
A) Code
B) Media
C) Pictures
D) Games
Answer: C

---

43. Where can you manage Windows updates?
A) System Properties
B) Action Center
C) Windows Update
D) Control Panel > Devices
Answer: C

---

44. What does ‘Aero Glass’ refer to?
A) A text editor
B) A feature for network access
C) A transparent window design
D) A file encryption tool
Answer: C

---

45. What kind of application is Windows Media Center?
A) Browser
B) Email client
C) Media playback and recording
D) Word processor
Answer: C

---

46. What file extension does a Windows 7 theme use?
A) .wtheme
B) .theme
C) .skin
D) .style
Answer: B

---

47. Which menu allows you to log off or shut down in Windows 7?
A) Start Menu
B) Taskbar
C) Sidebar
D) System Tray
Answer: A

---

48. Which command-line tool lists all running tasks?
A) services.msc
B) tasklist
C) taskmgr
D) msconfig
Answer: B

---

49. Which tool encrypts entire drives in supported versions of Windows 7?
A) BitLocker
B) UAC
C) Defender
D) Disk Cleanup
Answer: A

---

50. What is the primary purpose of Safe Mode?
A) Full system restore
B) Minimal boot for troubleshooting
C) Faster performance
D) Enhanced graphics
Answer: B

Here are 50 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) based on Windows 8, covering features, interface, settings, system utilities, and more:

---

🖥️ Windows 8 – MCQs (Set 1)

---

1. What was one of the most notable new features introduced in Windows 8?
A) Start Menu
B) Metro UI (Start Screen)
C) Internet Explorer 5
D) Aero Glass
Answer: B

---

2. What is the name of the tile-based interface in Windows 8?
A) Aero
B) Ribbon
C) Start Menu
D) Start Screen (Modern UI/Metro UI)
Answer: D

---

3. Which feature in Windows 8 allows syncing settings across devices using a Microsoft account?
A) SkyDrive
B) Sync Center
C) OneDrive
D) Account Sync
Answer: D

---

4. Windows 8 was officially released in:
A) 2010
B) 2011
C) 2012
D) 2013
Answer: C

---

5. Which of the following is the default browser in Windows 8?
A) Edge
B) Chrome
C) Internet Explorer 10
D) Firefox
Answer: C

---

6. Which Windows 8 edition is designed for tablets and ARM processors?
A) Windows 8 Enterprise
B) Windows 8 RT
C) Windows 8 Pro
D) Windows 8 Home
Answer: B

---

7. What replaced the Start Menu in Windows 8?
A) Desktop Toolbar
B) Ribbon UI
C) Start Screen
D) Task Manager
Answer: C

---

8. What is the shortcut to open the Start Screen in Windows 8?
A) Ctrl + Esc
B) Win key
C) Alt + Tab
D) Shift + Enter
Answer: B

---

9. What is the name of the search tool in Windows 8 used to search apps, settings, and files?
A) SearchBar
B) Cortana
C) Charms Search
D) Quick Search
Answer: C

---

10. Which of these features was removed in Windows 8 but returned in Windows 8.1?
A) Start Screen
B) Charms Bar
C) Aero Peek
D) Start Button
Answer: D

---

11. What is the name of the cloud storage service integrated into Windows 8?
A) Google Drive
B) Dropbox
C) OneDrive (formerly SkyDrive)
D) iCloud
Answer: C

---

12. What key combination opens Task Manager in Windows 8?
A) Ctrl + Shift + Esc
B) Ctrl + Alt + Delete
C) Alt + Esc
D) Shift + Esc
Answer: A

---

13. Which component shows date, time, battery, and network in Windows 8?
A) Task Manager
B) Charms Bar
C) System Tray
D) Desktop
Answer: C

---

14. Which new utility in Windows 8 helps you refresh the system without losing files?
A) System Restore
B) Reset PC
C) Refresh PC
D) Format PC
Answer: C

---

15. What feature allows you to run two apps side by side?
A) Aero Snap
B) Task Switcher
C) Snap View
D) Window Split
Answer: C

---

16. Windows 8 boots faster due to:
A) Faster RAM
B) SSD only
C) Hybrid Boot (Fast Startup)
D) GPU acceleration
Answer: C

---

17. The Charms Bar appears by default when you:
A) Click Start
B) Move the mouse to top-right or bottom-right corner
C) Press Ctrl
D) Open Task Manager
Answer: B

---

18. The Windows Store allows users to:
A) Browse files
B) Install traditional desktop apps
C) Download and install Metro apps
D) Customize Control Panel
Answer: C

---

19. What is the purpose of File History in Windows 8?
A) Monitor CPU
B) Backup files regularly
C) Show recently opened files
D) Save printer settings
Answer: B

---

20. Which key opens the Charms bar?
A) Win + X
B) Win + C
C) Win + S
D) Ctrl + C
Answer: B

---

21. Windows Defender in Windows 8 is:
A) Disabled by default
B) Only for firewall protection
C) Built-in antivirus and antispyware
D) A disk management tool
Answer: C

---

22. Which tool can reset or refresh Windows 8?
A) Recovery
B) Control Panel
C) Disk Cleanup
D) Device Manager
Answer: A

---

23. Which of the following is NOT a power option in Windows 8?
A) Sleep
B) Restart
C) Hibernate
D) Lock
Answer: D

---

24. Where do you change system resolution in Windows 8?
A) Charms bar > Search > Display
B) Control Panel > Display > Screen Resolution
C) Start Screen
D) Right-click on Taskbar
Answer: B

---

25. What is the file system used by Windows 8?
A) FAT
B) FAT32
C) NTFS
D) EXT3
Answer: C

---

26. How do you pin apps to the Start screen?
A) Drag and drop from Task Manager
B) Right-click > Pin to Start
C) Control Panel
D) Use File Explorer
Answer: B

---

27. Which key opens the Quick Access Menu in Windows 8?
A) Win + C
B) Win + R
C) Win + X
D) Win + Tab
Answer: C

---

28. In Windows 8, what replaces Windows Gadgets?
A) Live Tiles
B) File History
C) Windows Widgets
D) Action Center
Answer: A

---

29. Which of the following is a requirement for installing Windows 8?
A) 2 GB RAM for 32-bit
B) DVD drive only
C) 1 GHz processor with PAE, NX, and SSE2 support
D) 5 GB free space
Answer: C

---

30. Which account type is recommended for syncing settings in Windows 8?
A) Local Account
B) Admin Account
C) Microsoft Account
D) Guest Account
Answer: C

---

31. What is the purpose of Windows SmartScreen?
A) Enhance display
B) Block unsafe apps/files
C) Block popups
D) Screen reader
Answer: B

---

32. What tool provides detailed performance metrics?
A) Task Manager
B) Event Viewer
C) Resource Monitor
D) Performance Monitor
Answer: D

---

33. What is the maximum supported RAM for Windows 8 64-bit?
A) 2 GB
B) 8 GB
C) 128 GB (Windows 8 Pro)
D) Unlimited
Answer: C

---

34. What is the default browser in Windows 8 RT?
A) Chrome
B) Internet Explorer (ARM version)
C) Edge
D) Opera
Answer: B

---

35. The “Storage Spaces” feature in Windows 8 is used for:
A) Antivirus
B) Virtual memory
C) Disk pooling and redundancy
D) File cleanup
Answer: C

---

36. Windows 8 lock screen can show:
A) Time only
B) Notifications and updates
C) Ads
D) Installed apps
Answer: B

---

37. The desktop mode in Windows 8 is accessed by clicking:
A) Settings
B) Desktop Tile
C) Charm Bar
D) Taskbar
Answer: B

---

38. Which app handles photo viewing in Windows 8 by default?
A) Windows Photo Viewer
B) Metro Photos App
C) Media Center
D) Image Viewer
Answer: B

---

39. Which key combination opens the Run dialog box?
A) Ctrl + R
B) Win + R
C) Alt + R
D) Shift + R
Answer: B

---

40. What happens when you press Win + L in Windows 8?
A) Opens Taskbar
B) Locks the PC
C) Opens Control Panel
D) Minimizes all windows
Answer: B

---

41. What tool lets you manage disks and partitions?
A) File Explorer
B) Disk Management
C) System Restore
D) Charms Bar
Answer: B

---

42. Which file type is used to install Windows 8 apps?
A) .exe
B) .msi
C) .appx
D) .cab
Answer: C

---

43. How are traditional desktop apps displayed in Windows 8?
A) Full screen
B) In windows
C) In the Start Screen
D) Only via Store
Answer: B

---

44. Windows 8 includes a built-in PDF reader called:
A) Acrobat
B) Edge
C) Reader
D) Document Viewer
Answer: C

---

45. Which service enables remote help in Windows 8?
A) Remote Assistance
B) Remote Helpdesk
C) Windows Messenger
D) TeleSupport
Answer: A

---

46. Windows 8 features a new file copy dialog that allows:
A) Pause and resume
B) Background syncing
C) File deletion
D) App uninstallation
Answer: A

---

47. The background image of the lock screen is known as:
A) Desktop
B) Splash
C) Lock Screen wallpaper
D) Login screen
Answer: C

---

48. What is SkyDrive now called in Windows 8.1 and later?
A) Google Drive
B) OneDrive
C) CloudBox
D) WinDrive
Answer: B

---

49. Which Control Panel category allows uninstalling programs?
A) Hardware
B) Appearance
C) Programs
D) System
Answer: C

---

50. What feature automatically updates Windows 8 apps?
A) Windows Update
B) Task Scheduler
C) Store Settings
D) SmartSync
Answer: C

Here are 50 more Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) based on Windows 8, focusing on deeper features, user interface, administration tools, and system behavior:

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🖥️ Windows 8 – MCQs (Set 2)

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1. What does the “PC Settings” app in Windows 8 allow you to do?
A) Install apps
B) Manage BIOS settings
C) Modify system and user preferences
D) Access Device Manager
Answer: C

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2. In Windows 8, how can you access the ‘Advanced Startup’ options?
A) Through Control Panel > Devices
B) From PC Settings > General > Advanced Startup
C) Right-click desktop
D) Press F12 during boot
Answer: B

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3. Which power option is not available by default on Windows 8 laptops?
A) Sleep
B) Restart
C) Hibernate
D) Shut down
Answer: C

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4. How can you take a screenshot in Windows 8 using a shortcut?
A) Alt + PrtSc
B) Ctrl + PrtSc
C) Windows + PrtSc
D) Windows + S
Answer: C

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5. The Windows 8 feature that helps you prevent unauthorized software installations is called:
A) SmartScreen
B) Defender
C) UAC (User Account Control)
D) BitLocker
Answer: C

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6. Which application helps in backing up data automatically on Windows 8?
A) Backup and Restore
B) File History
C) System Restore
D) Time Machine
Answer: B

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7. What is the minimum RAM requirement for 64-bit Windows 8 installation?
A) 512 MB
B) 1 GB
C) 2 GB
D) 4 GB
Answer: C

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8. The Metro UI is optimized for which type of input?
A) Mouse only
B) Touchscreen
C) Keyboard
D) Voice command
Answer: B

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9. The Charms bar includes all except:
A) Search
B) Share
C) Devices
D) Task Manager
Answer: D

---

10. Windows 8 apps from the Windows Store are known as:
A) Desktop Apps
B) Modern Apps
C) Classic Programs
D) Utility Programs
Answer: B

---

11. Which shortcut opens Windows Explorer (File Explorer) in Windows 8?
A) Win + F
B) Win + E
C) Win + W
D) Ctrl + E
Answer: B

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12. Which key combination displays the desktop in Windows 8?
A) Win + D
B) Ctrl + D
C) Alt + D
D) Shift + D
Answer: A

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13. The primary function of BitLocker in Windows 8 is:
A) Backup
B) Encrypting drives
C) Antivirus
D) Cleaning disk space
Answer: B

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14. In Windows 8, “Windows To Go” is a feature available in:
A) Home Edition
B) Pro Edition
C) Enterprise Edition
D) RT Edition
Answer: C

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15. How do you open Device Manager quickly in Windows 8?
A) Win + X, then press M
B) Ctrl + Alt + Delete
C) Start > Settings
D) Charms Bar
Answer: A

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16. What does the “Snap” feature in Windows 8 allow?
A) Close apps
B) Resize tiled apps
C) Snap apps side-by-side
D) Maximize all apps
Answer: C

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17. How are updates managed in Windows 8?
A) Through Microsoft Office
B) Through Control Panel > Windows Update
C) Through BIOS
D) Using Task Scheduler
Answer: B

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18. Which Windows 8 version includes Hyper-V support?
A) Home
B) RT
C) Pro and Enterprise
D) Basic
Answer: C

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19. In Windows 8, which key combination is used for app switching?
A) Alt + F4
B) Win + Tab
C) Ctrl + Tab
D) Alt + Esc
Answer: B

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20. Which tool allows you to create and manage virtual hard drives?
A) Disk Cleanup
B) Device Manager
C) Disk Management
D) Task Scheduler
Answer: C

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21. What is the default extension for a Windows 8 Modern UI app package?
A) .zip
B) .exe
C) .appx
D) .msi
Answer: C

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22. Which utility helps analyze system performance and logs events?
A) Task Scheduler
B) Event Viewer
C) Control Panel
D) BIOS
Answer: B

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23. The command msconfig in Windows 8 is used to:
A) Manage printer settings
B) Modify system startup options
C) Configure BIOS
D) Remove viruses
Answer: B

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24. To change which programs start with Windows 8, you use:
A) System Restore
B) Task Scheduler
C) Task Manager > Startup tab
D) Device Manager
Answer: C

---

25. Which option is used to create user accounts in Windows 8?
A) PC Settings > Accounts
B) Charms Bar > Settings
C) File Explorer
D) Task Manager
Answer: A

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26. What does Ctrl + Shift + Esc do in Windows 8?
A) Opens Charms
B) Opens Control Panel
C) Opens Task Manager
D) Locks PC
Answer: C

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27. What does the ‘Devices’ charm allow you to access?
A) File Explorer
B) External devices like printers or projectors
C) Taskbar
D) Apps
Answer: B

---

28. Which of the following is NOT a valid Windows 8 edition?
A) Windows 8 RT
B) Windows 8 Home
C) Windows 8 Pro
D) Windows 8 Enterprise
Answer: B

---

29. Where is the “Ease of Access” center found in Windows 8?
A) BIOS
B) Control Panel
C) Start Menu
D) Windows Store
Answer: B

---

30. What does pressing Windows + I open in Windows 8?
A) Internet Explorer
B) PC Settings
C) Settings charm
D) Task Manager
Answer: C

---

31. What is a key benefit of a Microsoft account in Windows 8?
A) Faster boot time
B) Remote shutdown
C) Sync settings and files across devices
D) BIOS configuration
Answer: C

---

32. Which of these is NOT found in Control Panel?
A) Programs and Features
B) File History
C) Modern App Manager
D) Device Manager
Answer: C

---

33. How do you access the Control Panel in Windows 8?
A) Search for “Control Panel” from Charms
B) Charms > Share
C) Windows Store
D) Metro Apps
Answer: A

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34. What is the minimum hard disk space required for 64-bit Windows 8?
A) 10 GB
B) 16 GB
C) 20 GB
D) 25 GB
Answer: C

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35. In Windows 8, what is used to set up wireless connections?
A) Control Panel > Network
B) Airplane Mode
C) Network & Sharing Center
D) Task Manager
Answer: C

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36. The action center in Windows 8 notifies users about:
A) Hardware issues
B) Software updates and security
C) Network speed
D) Internet usage
Answer: B

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37. The Windows 8 lock screen shows notifications from:
A) Only Outlook
B) Selected Modern Apps
C) Desktop Apps
D) System Logs
Answer: B

---

38. Where do you adjust mouse pointer speed in Windows 8?
A) Charms Bar > Devices
B) Control Panel > Mouse
C) Task Manager
D) File Explorer
Answer: B

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39. How do you access Safe Mode in Windows 8?
A) Hold F8
B) Settings > Advanced Startup > Startup Settings
C) Alt + Shift
D) Task Manager
Answer: B

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40. The built-in video player in Windows 8 is:
A) Windows Media Player
B) VLC
C) Media Center
D) Media Play
Answer: A

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41. Windows Defender is integrated with which tool in Windows 8?
A) Internet Explorer
B) SmartScreen
C) Microsoft Security Essentials
D) Task Scheduler
Answer: C

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42. To open system properties, use the shortcut:
A) Win + Pause/Break
B) Ctrl + Shift + Esc
C) Alt + Enter
D) Ctrl + F3
Answer: A

---

43. The ‘Run’ dialog can be opened by:
A) Win + R
B) Ctrl + R
C) Alt + R
D) Shift + R
Answer: A

---

44. You can find Disk Cleanup tool in:
A) Device Manager
B) System Tools
C) BIOS
D) Windows Store
Answer: B

---

45. To rename a file using the keyboard:
A) F1
B) F2
C) Ctrl + R
D) Alt + F
Answer: B

---

46. You can configure default apps from:
A) Task Manager
B) PC Settings > Search & Apps
C) Charms Bar
D) Windows Store
Answer: B

---

47. The shortcut for switching between open apps in Windows 8 is:
A) Win + D
B) Alt + Tab
C) Win + W
D) Ctrl + Esc
Answer: B

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48. The shortcut to open the “Search” charm is:
A) Win + F
B) Win + E
C) Ctrl + F
D) Alt + S
Answer: A

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49. What does “Reset your PC” do in Windows 8?
A) Refresh settings
B) Keeps files
C) Removes all files and reinstalls Windows
D) Shuts down
Answer: C

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50. You can view installed hardware in:
A) Task Manager
B) Device Manager
C) File Explorer
D) Charms Bar
Answer: B

Below are 50 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) based on Windows 10, covering features, shortcuts, settings, and basic to intermediate functionality.

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🪟 Windows 10 – MCQs

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1. Which feature in Windows 10 lets you create multiple desktops?
A) Task View
B) Action Center
C) Cortana
D) Start Menu
Answer: A

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2. What is the default web browser in Windows 10?
A) Internet Explorer
B) Firefox
C) Edge
D) Chrome
Answer: C

---

3. Which shortcut opens the Start Menu?
A) Ctrl + S
B) Windows key
C) Alt + S
D) Shift + Enter
Answer: B

---

4. Which assistant is built into Windows 10 for voice commands and search?
A) Alexa
B) Google Assistant
C) Cortana
D) Siri
Answer: C

---

5. How can you quickly access the Action Center?
A) Ctrl + A
B) Windows + A
C) Alt + A
D) Shift + A
Answer: B

---

6. What is the function of Windows + L?
A) Logout
B) Lock screen
C) Launch Explorer
D) Load Task Manager
Answer: B

---

7. What is the maximum number of desktops you can create in Task View?
A) 2
B) 10
C) Unlimited
D) 4
Answer: C

---

8. Where can you manage Windows Updates in Windows 10?
A) Control Panel
B) Microsoft Store
C) Settings > Update & Security
D) Task Manager
Answer: C

---

9. What does the “Snap Assist” feature do?
A) Manages startup apps
B) Automatically arranges windows
C) Opens photo editor
D) Downloads apps
Answer: B

---

10. Which shortcut opens File Explorer?
A) Ctrl + E
B) Windows + E
C) Alt + E
D) Shift + E
Answer: B

---

11. What is the function of Windows + D?
A) Opens Desktop
B) Deletes a file
C) Duplicates a window
D) Disables sound
Answer: A

---

12. How do you access the Settings app quickly?
A) Windows + S
B) Windows + I
C) Ctrl + Alt + S
D) Windows + C
Answer: B

---

13. What tool can you use to record screen activity in Windows 10?
A) Snipping Tool
B) Paint
C) Xbox Game Bar
D) Notepad
Answer: C

---

14. Which program protects against malware in Windows 10 by default?
A) Norton
B) Avast
C) Windows Defender
D) AVG
Answer: C

---

15. Where can you find the Device Manager?
A) Settings > System
B) Control Panel
C) Settings > Personalization
D) Task Manager
Answer: B

---

16. What is the purpose of the “BitLocker” feature?
A) Disk cleanup
B) Disk encryption
C) Malware protection
D) Password manager
Answer: B

---

17. What shortcut opens the Run dialog box?
A) Ctrl + R
B) Windows + R
C) Alt + R
D) Shift + R
Answer: B

---

18. Which shortcut opens the Task Manager?
A) Ctrl + Shift + Esc
B) Windows + T
C) Alt + F4
D) Windows + Esc
Answer: A

---

19. What does the Storage Sense feature do?
A) Scans for viruses
B) Blocks unknown apps
C) Automatically frees up disk space
D) Optimizes battery
Answer: C

---

20. Where can you manage startup apps in Windows 10?
A) Control Panel
B) Task Manager
C) File Explorer
D) Services
Answer: B

---

21. What type of files does Windows Defender scan?
A) Only system files
B) Only .exe files
C) All file types
D) None
Answer: C

---

22. How can you switch between open windows using the keyboard?
A) Alt + Tab
B) Ctrl + Tab
C) Windows + Tab
D) Shift + Tab
Answer: A

---

23. Which feature in Windows 10 helps reduce blue light?
A) Power Saver
B) Focus Assist
C) Night Light
D) Color Mode
Answer: C

---

24. What is the extension of a Windows 10 application package from the Microsoft Store?
A) .exe
B) .app
C) .msi
D) .appx
Answer: D

---

25. What does the “Reset this PC” feature do?
A) Shuts down your PC
B) Installs Windows again
C) Updates the system
D) Removes viruses
Answer: B

---

26. What is Focus Assist used for?
A) Audio enhancements
B) Screen brightness control
C) Suppress notifications
D) Install drivers
Answer: C

---

27. What does the shortcut Windows + P do?
A) Opens Print dialog
B) Opens Project options for display
C) Opens Programs
D) Opens Paint
Answer: B

---

28. How do you access “Safe Mode” in Windows 10?
A) Press F8 repeatedly
B) Advanced Startup Options
C) BIOS menu
D) Task Manager
Answer: B

---

29. Which feature provides clipboard history in Windows 10?
A) Clipboard Saver
B) CopyVault
C) Clipboard Manager
D) Clipboard History
Answer: D

---

30. What does Windows Hello provide?
A) Voice recognition
B) Personalized greetings
C) Biometric authentication
D) Remote access
Answer: C

---

31. What is the function of the Magnifier tool?
A) Search apps
B) Increase font size
C) Enlarge screen elements
D) Enhance brightness
Answer: C

---

32. What does the Task View button show?
A) File explorer
B) Taskbar
C) Open windows and desktops
D) Recent downloads
Answer: C

---

33. What is the shortcut to open Task View?
A) Ctrl + T
B) Windows + Tab
C) Alt + V
D) Windows + V
Answer: B

---

34. Which edition of Windows 10 is most suited for business use?
A) Home
B) Pro
C) Education
D) Mobile
Answer: B

---

35. What does Disk Cleanup do?
A) Defragment the disk
B) Remove unused files
C) Encrypt the disk
D) Backup files
Answer: B

---

36. Which command opens Command Prompt?
A) cmd
B) prompt
C) command
D) startcmd
Answer: A

---

37. What is the full form of UAC in Windows 10?
A) User Account Control
B) Universal Access Code
C) User Authentication Component
D) Unified Access Control
Answer: A

---

38. How do you enable dark mode in Windows 10?
A) Control Panel > Display
B) Settings > Personalization > Colors
C) File Explorer
D) Right-click taskbar
Answer: B

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39. What is the purpose of “Check for Updates”?
A) Update antivirus
B) Update all apps
C) Update system software and drivers
D) Update passwords
Answer: C

---

40. Windows 10 replaced what previous version?
A) Windows 7
B) Windows 8.1
C) Windows Vista
D) Windows XP
Answer: B

---

41. What feature restores previous versions of files?
A) Backup
B) File History
C) Disk Management
D) Defender
Answer: B

---

42. What’s the function of the “People” app?
A) View photos
B) Manage contacts
C) Calendar sync
D) Monitor updates
Answer: B

---

43. What does Windows + X open?
A) Settings
B) Power User Menu
C) Control Panel
D) Device Manager
Answer: B

---

44. What tool provides real-time performance monitoring?
A) File Explorer
B) Resource Monitor
C) Disk Cleanup
D) Paint
Answer: B

---

45. What is the full name of the system configuration tool?
A) Sysconfig
B) MSCONFIG
C) SettingsTool
D) BootManager
Answer: B

---

46. Which app is used for 3D creation in Windows 10?
A) MS Paint
B) Paint 3D
C) 3D Studio
D) Creator App
Answer: B

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47. What is the purpose of the “Feedback Hub”?
A) Rate apps
B) Report bugs and give feedback
C) Install updates
D) Share music
Answer: B

---

48. Windows 10 allows sign-in using all except:
A) PIN
B) Password
C) USB token
D) Facial recognition
Answer: C

---

49. Which of these helps prevent data loss in case of a crash?
A) System Restore
B) Format
C) Shutdown
D) Paint
Answer: A

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50. What is the use of Windows Defender Firewall?
A) Scans for viruses
B) Controls incoming/outgoing network traffic
C) Manages drivers
D) Opens ports
Answer: B

Here are 50 more MCQs based on Windows 10, covering deeper usage, troubleshooting, admin tools, and system settings.

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🪟 Windows 10 – Additional 50 MCQs

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1. What does the “Windows + X” shortcut open?
A) File Explorer
B) Power User Menu
C) Settings
D) Run
Answer: B

---

2. What is the default extension for Notepad files?
A) .docx
B) .txt
C) .pdf
D) .xlsx
Answer: B

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3. Which Windows 10 feature helps recover files after an unexpected shutdown?
A) File History
B) Disk Cleanup
C) System Monitor
D) Device Manager
Answer: A

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4. What does “chkdsk” stand for?
A) Check desktop
B) Check disk
C) Change directory
D) Change disk
Answer: B

---

5. Which component shows system notifications in Windows 10?
A) Cortana
B) Action Center
C) File Explorer
D) Taskbar
Answer: B

---

6. Where can you find “Ease of Access” settings?
A) Control Panel
B) Settings > Accessibility
C) Settings > System
D) Device Manager
Answer: B

---

7. The feature used to switch quickly between apps is:
A) Snap Assist
B) Task View
C) Windows Store
D) File Explorer
Answer: B

---

8. What is the main function of Windows Defender Firewall?
A) Block viruses
B) Monitor internet data
C) Control incoming/outgoing traffic
D) Store passwords
Answer: C

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9. What command opens System Information?
A) sysinfo
B) msinfo32
C) wininfo
D) sysconfig
Answer: B

---

10. Which option is not available in the Power Menu (Windows + X)?
A) Shutdown
B) Task Manager
C) Control Panel
D) Device Manager
Answer: C

---

11. What file type is used for Windows driver packages?
A) .exe
B) .inf
C) .dll
D) .drv
Answer: B

---

12. Where is the Windows registry editor accessed from?
A) regedit
B) msconfig
C) cmd
D) sysinfo
Answer: A

---

13. What is the function of the “Device Manager”?
A) Uninstall software
B) Control system updates
C) Manage hardware devices
D) Schedule tasks
Answer: C

---

14. Windows PowerShell is used for:
A) Gaming
B) Scripting and command-line tasks
C) File transfer
D) Graphic design
Answer: B

---

15. What does “Alt + F4” do in Windows 10?
A) Minimize window
B) Close window
C) Open Task Manager
D) Open new tab
Answer: B

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16. Which built-in tool checks disk space usage?
A) Disk Cleanup
B) Task Manager
C) Storage Settings
D) Resource Monitor
Answer: C

---

17. What is the function of “System Restore”?
A) Backs up files
B) Restores Windows settings to a previous point
C) Uninstalls apps
D) Resets password
Answer: B

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18. Which Windows version introduced virtual desktops?
A) Windows 7
B) Windows 8
C) Windows 10
D) Windows Vista
Answer: C

---

19. In Windows 10, what does UWP stand for?
A) Universal Windows Platform
B) User Web Program
C) Unified Windows Processing
D) Utility Web Platform
Answer: A

---

20. The shortcut “Ctrl + Shift + Esc” opens:
A) Control Panel
B) Run
C) Task Manager
D) Windows Settings
Answer: C

---

21. Which update model does Windows 10 follow?
A) Manual
B) Scheduled
C) Continuous updates
D) Semi-annual channel
Answer: D

---

22. What is the extension for system registry backup?
A) .bak
B) .reg
C) .sys
D) .sav
Answer: B

---

23. The default location of downloaded files is:
A) C:\Temp
B) C:\Windows
C) Downloads folder
D) C:\Data
Answer: C

---

24. To uninstall an app, navigate to:
A) Control Panel > Programs
B) Task Manager
C) Settings > Personalization
D) File Explorer
Answer: A

---

25. Windows 10’s Task Manager has how many default tabs?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Answer: D

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26. Which tool allows customizing Windows boot options?
A) Task Manager
B) Disk Management
C) MSConfig
D) Device Manager
Answer: C

---

27. What is the purpose of Windows Sandbox?
A) Play games
B) Install themes
C) Run apps in isolated environment
D) Host files
Answer: C

---

28. What is the function of “Startup Repair”?
A) Remove viruses
B) Fix boot issues
C) Install drivers
D) Format drive
Answer: B

---

29. Cortana is primarily used for:
A) Security
B) Voice-based assistance and search
C) File backup
D) Performance monitoring
Answer: B

---

30. The “Snip & Sketch” tool is used to:
A) Record video
B) Paint
C) Screenshot and annotate
D) Encrypt files
Answer: C

---

31. How do you access BIOS from Windows 10?
A) Restart and press Esc/F2/Del
B) Settings > Network
C) Control Panel > Display
D) Run > BIOS
Answer: A

---

32. The Microsoft Store allows:
A) Installing drivers
B) Downloading system updates
C) Installing apps and games
D) Backup files
Answer: C

---

33. Windows 10 supports which virtual assistant?
A) Siri
B) Cortana
C) Alexa
D) Bixby
Answer: B

---

34. To rename a file, the shortcut key is:
A) F2
B) F3
C) Alt + Enter
D) Ctrl + R
Answer: A

---

35. Which is NOT a valid file system for Windows 10?
A) FAT32
B) exFAT
C) NTFS
D) HFS+
Answer: D

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36. BitLocker is available in which edition?
A) Windows 10 Home
B) Windows 10 Pro
C) Windows 10 Basic
D) All versions
Answer: B

---

37. OneDrive integration allows:
A) Antivirus
B) Cloud storage
C) Driver update
D) App syncing
Answer: B

---

38. The blue screen of death (BSOD) usually indicates:
A) Printer error
B) Network disconnection
C) Critical system failure
D) Driver update
Answer: C

---

39. What is the purpose of “Reliability Monitor”?
A) Measure internet speed
B) Show device history
C) View system stability
D) Scan memory
Answer: C

---

40. “Fast Startup” is used to:
A) Install apps
B) Reduce boot time
C) Increase RAM
D) Update files
Answer: B

---

41. Which partition is required for Windows boot files?
A) Data partition
B) Recovery partition
C) System Reserved
D) Local Disk
Answer: C

---

42. The “Services” console is accessed by:
A) msconfig
B) services.msc
C) sysedit
D) taskrun
Answer: B

---

43. Which tool is used to schedule automated tasks?
A) Task Manager
B) Event Viewer
C) Task Scheduler
D) Performance Monitor
Answer: C

---

44. Where can you find the Windows version number?
A) msinfo32
B) dxdiag
C) winver
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

45. What does “Windows + Ctrl + D” do?
A) Duplicate screen
B) Add a new virtual desktop
C) Disconnect devices
D) Delete files
Answer: B

---

46. The “Run” command can be accessed by:
A) Windows + R
B) Windows + E
C) Ctrl + Alt + R
D) Alt + F4
Answer: A

---

47. To turn off Windows 10, use shortcut:
A) Ctrl + Shift + Esc
B) Alt + F4 (on Desktop)
C) Ctrl + Alt + Del
D) F5
Answer: B

---

48. What is the use of “Performance Monitor”?
A) Scan network
B) Update files
C) Track system performance
D) Print pages
Answer: C

---

49. The function of “Device Encryption” is:
A) Backup photos
B) Encrypt system drive
C) Reset Windows
D) Install firmware
Answer: B

---

50. Which command checks and repairs Windows files?
A) sfc /scannow
B) chkboot
C) regedit
D) bootfix
Answer: A

Windows 11 – 50 MCQs

---

1. What is the minimum RAM requirement for Windows 11?
A) 2 GB
B) 4 GB
C) 8 GB
D) 1 GB
Answer: B

---

2. What is the minimum storage required to install Windows 11?
A) 20 GB
B) 32 GB
C) 64 GB
D) 100 GB
Answer: C

---

3. What is the minimum processor requirement for Windows 11?
A) 1 GHz with 1 core
B) 2 GHz with 2 cores
C) 1 GHz with 2 cores
D) 3 GHz with 2 cores
Answer: C

---

4. Which security feature is mandatory for Windows 11 installation?
A) Antivirus
B) TPM 2.0
C) Windows Defender
D) BitLocker
Answer: B

---

5. What is the default position of the Start menu in Windows 11?
A) Bottom left
B) Top center
C) Bottom center
D) Bottom right
Answer: C

---

6. Windows 11 introduces a new feature called:
A) Action Center
B) Snap Layouts
C) Live Tiles
D) Aero Peek
Answer: B

---

7. Which app store is redesigned in Windows 11?
A) Microsoft Edge
B) Microsoft Store
C) Internet Explorer
D) Xbox Store
Answer: B

---

8. What is the name of the new widgets feature in Windows 11?
A) Live Widgets
B) Info Panels
C) Widgets Board
D) Dashboard
Answer: C

---

9. Which virtual desktop feature is improved in Windows 11?
A) Task Switcher
B) Multiple displays
C) Personalized backgrounds
D) Sticky Notes
Answer: C

---

10. The Teams integration in Windows 11 is available via:
A) Microsoft Edge
B) Microsoft Store
C) Taskbar
D) Control Panel
Answer: C

---

11. Which file explorer feature is changed in Windows 11?
A) Ribbon UI
B) Tabs
C) Status Bar
D) Quick Access
Answer: A

---

12. Which key combination opens the Snap Layouts?
A) Win + Z
B) Win + Tab
C) Alt + Tab
D) Ctrl + Win
Answer: A

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13. What feature is used to run Android apps in Windows 11?
A) Google Play Store
B) Amazon Appstore
C) Microsoft WebView
D) Bing Extensions
Answer: B

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14. Which background image was featured during the Windows 11 launch?
A) Bloom
B) Wave
C) Curve
D) Shine
Answer: A

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15. Which edition of Windows 11 is intended for business environments?
A) Home
B) Pro
C) Enterprise
D) Developer
Answer: C

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16. What replaces Live Tiles in Windows 11?
A) Widgets
B) Start Shortcuts
C) Smart Tiles
D) Info Panels
Answer: A

---

17. Which Microsoft service is integrated into the taskbar by default?
A) Outlook
B) OneNote
C) Microsoft Teams
D) Excel
Answer: C

---

18. Can Windows 11 be installed on an unsupported PC?
A) Yes, with Microsoft support
B) No
C) Yes, but at your own risk
D) Only with Home edition
Answer: C

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19. What does the “Focus Sessions” feature help with?
A) Network Monitoring
B) System Updates
C) Task Focus and Breaks
D) Hardware Management
Answer: C

---

20. Windows 11 updates are expected to occur:
A) Every week
B) Every month
C) Annually
D) Twice a year
Answer: C

---

21. Which version of DirectX is built into Windows 11?
A) DirectX 9
B) DirectX 10
C) DirectX 11
D) DirectX 12 Ultimate
Answer: D

---

22. What is the default browser in Windows 11?
A) Chrome
B) Firefox
C) Internet Explorer
D) Microsoft Edge
Answer: D

---

23. Which feature is used to improve window management in Windows 11?
A) Aero Shake
B) Snap Layouts
C) Task Scheduler
D) Desktop Peek
Answer: B

---

24. TPM stands for:
A) Trusted Platform Module
B) Total Platform Manager
C) Technical Protocol Manager
D) Terminal Processing Method
Answer: A

---

25. Windows 11 requires UEFI instead of:
A) BIOS
B) CMOS
C) Registry
D) MBR
Answer: A

---

26. Windows 11 includes which type of multitasking tool?
A) Taskbar Groups
B) Snap Groups
C) Aero Grid
D) Cluster View
Answer: B

---

27. What does the Settings app replace in Windows 11?
A) BIOS
B) Registry Editor
C) Control Panel (partially)
D) Services
Answer: C

---

28. What feature in Windows 11 allows background customization for each virtual desktop?
A) Live Wallpaper
B) Dynamic Background
C) Personalization per Desktop
D) Desktop Themes
Answer: C

---

29. What are the rounded corners in Windows 11 UI called?
A) Curved Layout
B) Soft Corners
C) Fluent Design
D) Acrylic Edge
Answer: C

---

30. What is the default theme in Windows 11?
A) Light
B) Dark
C) Bloom
D) Blue
Answer: A

---

31. Windows 11 has tighter integration with which cloud platform?
A) Dropbox
B) Google Drive
C) OneDrive
D) iCloud
Answer: C

---

32. The Windows 11 taskbar is:
A) Movable to any edge
B) Fixed to bottom only (currently)
C) Completely customizable
D) Transparent only
Answer: B

---

33. Which icon appears at the center of the Windows 11 taskbar?
A) Recycle Bin
B) File Explorer
C) Start Button
D) Cortana
Answer: C

---

34. Which feature assists accessibility in Windows 11?
A) Narrator
B) Cortana
C) Cortana
D) BitLocker
Answer: A

---

35. How are apps like Mail and Calendar installed in Windows 11?
A) Manually
B) Through Windows Update
C) Pre-installed
D) Via USB
Answer: C

---

36. What happens if your PC does not support TPM 2.0?
A) Windows 11 installs normally
B) You get full support
C) You cannot install without workaround
D) Nothing changes
Answer: C

---

37. Which type of CPU is required for Windows 11?
A) 32-bit only
B) 64-bit
C) 16-bit
D) Dual-boot
Answer: B

---

38. In Windows 11, the “Task View” button shows:
A) Snap Layout
B) Virtual Desktops
C) System Info
D) Registry Settings
Answer: B

---

39. How do you rename virtual desktops in Windows 11?
A) Right-click > Rename
B) Settings > Personalization
C) File Explorer
D) Taskbar > Rename
Answer: A

---

40. Does Windows 11 support touchscreens?
A) No
B) Only on tablets
C) Yes
D) Only in Pro version
Answer: C

---

41. Which mode is removed in Windows 11?
A) S Mode
B) Tablet Mode
C) Developer Mode
D) Game Mode
Answer: B

---

42. What replaces Internet Explorer in Windows 11?
A) Chrome
B) Opera
C) Microsoft Edge
D) Cortana
Answer: C

---

43. Can you upgrade to Windows 11 from Windows 7 directly?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Only via ISO
D) Only from Pro version
Answer: B

---

44. Windows 11 offers built-in support for what kind of gaming tech?
A) Vulkan
B) DirectStorage
C) Game DVR
D) Unity
Answer: B

---

45. Windows 11 Home requires what to complete setup?
A) CD/DVD
B) Internet connection and Microsoft Account
C) Local account only
D) No setup required
Answer: B

---

46. Which shortcut opens the Quick Settings panel in Windows 11?
A) Win + Q
B) Win + A
C) Ctrl + Shift + A
D) Win + K
Answer: B

---

47. Which of the following is NOT a valid installation method for Windows 11?
A) USB
B) DVD
C) Windows Update
D) Android App
Answer: D

---

48. What’s the name of the redesigned settings app category style in Windows 11?
A) Classic View
B) Fluent Navigation Pane
C) Modern Explorer
D) Side Tab Panel
Answer: B

---

49. Can Windows 11 run on ARM-based devices?
A) No
B) Only Android
C) Yes
D) Only with emulators
Answer: C

---

50. What type of layout engine is used in Windows 11 interface?
A) WinForms
B) WPF
C) WinUI 3
D) Direct2D
Answer: C

Here are 50 more Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) based on Windows 11, covering system settings, features, shortcuts, versions, updates, personalization, and accessibility.

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🪟 Windows 11 – Additional 50 MCQs

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1. What is the latest Windows version before Windows 11?
A) Windows Vista
B) Windows XP
C) Windows 10
D) Windows 8.1
Answer: C

---

2. Which feature in Windows 11 helps manage notifications?
A) Quiet Hours
B) Notification Center
C) Action Panel
D) Focus Assist
Answer: D

---

3. The Windows 11 lock screen allows access to:
A) Desktop
B) Task Manager
C) Clock and Notifications
D) Settings
Answer: C

---

4. What is the default file system used in Windows 11?
A) FAT32
B) NTFS
C) exFAT
D) ReFS
Answer: B

---

5. Which of the following shortcut keys opens Settings in Windows 11?
A) Win + I
B) Win + S
C) Ctrl + Alt + S
D) Alt + F4
Answer: A

---

6. What tool is used for creating a backup image in Windows 11?
A) Backup and Restore
B) File Explorer
C) System Restore
D) Disk Cleaner
Answer: A

---

7. Which Windows 11 version is targeted at students and education institutions?
A) Pro
B) Enterprise
C) Education
D) Home
Answer: C

---

8. What is the new clipboard shortcut introduced in Windows 11?
A) Ctrl + C
B) Win + V
C) Alt + V
D) Shift + C
Answer: B

---

9. Windows 11 boots using which type of firmware?
A) BIOS
B) UEFI
C) CMOS
D) MBR
Answer: B

---

10. Which app allows recording screen activity in Windows 11?
A) Paint
B) Snipping Tool
C) Xbox Game Bar
D) WordPad
Answer: C

---

11. What does Windows Hello offer?
A) Firewall Configuration
B) Voice Assistant
C) Biometric Login
D) Update Scheduling
Answer: C

---

12. The Settings app in Windows 11 replaces which older interface?
A) BIOS
B) Control Panel (partially)
C) Windows Media Center
D) Device Manager
Answer: B

---

13. Which of the following is NOT a power option in Windows 11?
A) Sleep
B) Hibernate
C) Shutdown
D) Archive
Answer: D

---

14. Which shortcut opens Task Manager?
A) Ctrl + T
B) Ctrl + Shift + Esc
C) Win + X
D) Alt + Tab
Answer: B

---

15. What is used to group and restore applications and layouts in Windows 11?
A) App Snap
B) Snap Groups
C) Window Panels
D) Focus Mode
Answer: B

---

16. What allows users to switch between open apps in Windows 11?
A) Ctrl + Shift
B) Alt + Tab
C) Win + E
D) Ctrl + F4
Answer: B

---

17. Which update channel provides the earliest access to Windows 11 features?
A) Monthly Channel
B) Semi-Annual
C) Insider Preview
D) Stable Channel
Answer: C

---

18. What is the transparency effect in Windows 11 UI called?
A) Fluent Glass
B) Acrylic
C) Aero Lite
D) Translucent Shell
Answer: B

---

19. Which option is used to reset Windows 11 to its factory state?
A) Task Manager
B) System Restore
C) Reset This PC
D) Registry Editor
Answer: C

---

20. What tool allows users to check system performance?
A) File Explorer
B) Disk Cleanup
C) Task Manager
D) Paint
Answer: C

---

21. Which utility is used to partition disks in Windows 11?
A) Format Tool
B) Disk Management
C) Registry Editor
D) Device Manager
Answer: B

---

22. What does the BitLocker tool provide?
A) Virus Protection
B) Data Compression
C) Disk Encryption
D) Driver Updates
Answer: C

---

23. Windows 11 includes which of these accessibility tools?
A) Voice Narrator
B) TalkBack
C) Siri
D) Dragon
Answer: A

---

24. The “Startup” tab is found in which utility?
A) Device Manager
B) Settings
C) Task Manager
D) File Explorer
Answer: C

---

25. Which shortcut captures a full screenshot and saves it automatically?
A) Print Screen
B) Alt + Print Screen
C) Win + Print Screen
D) Ctrl + Print Screen
Answer: C

---

26. The Run dialog box is opened by:
A) Win + R
B) Ctrl + R
C) Shift + R
D) Alt + R
Answer: A

---

27. Which of the following controls app installations in Windows 11?
A) App Store
B) Windows Security
C) Smart App Control
D) Defender Firewall
Answer: C

---

28. Windows 11 uses what for system recovery environment?
A) BIOS Recovery
B) Recovery Drive
C) WinRE (Windows Recovery Environment)
D) ISO Bootloader
Answer: C

---

29. In File Explorer, Quick Access displays:
A) All drives
B) Recent and pinned files/folders
C) Program Files
D) Network drives only
Answer: B

---

30. To enable dark mode in Windows 11, go to:
A) System > Display
B) Personalization > Colors
C) Accessibility > Contrast
D) Appearance > Theme
Answer: B

---

31. Which command is used to open Device Manager quickly?
A) devmgmt.msc
B) diskmgmt.msc
C) taskmgr
D) sysinfo.exe
Answer: A

---

32. What type of update introduces new features in Windows 11?
A) Security Update
B) Cumulative Update
C) Feature Update
D) Patch Tuesday
Answer: C

---

33. What does the “Win + D” shortcut do?
A) Open Downloads
B) Display desktop
C) Delete file
D) Open Developer tools
Answer: B

---

34. Which app manages wireless and network settings?
A) Control Panel
B) Network Center
C) Settings > Network & Internet
D) Firewall Settings
Answer: C

---

35. The file extension for Windows 11 ISO is:
A) .zip
B) .exe
C) .img
D) .iso
Answer: D

---

36. Windows 11 has improved support for:
A) x86 processors only
B) Multi-monitor setups
C) Legacy games
D) Windows XP drivers
Answer: B

---

37. To check Windows activation status, go to:
A) System > Security
B) Personalization
C) System > Activation
D) Apps & Features
Answer: C

---

38. What Windows feature stores your login and credentials?
A) Credential Manager
B) Task Scheduler
C) OneDrive
D) BitLocker
Answer: A

---

39. Which feature allows you to resume apps after restarting?
A) Task Recovery
B) Startup Manager
C) Automatic Restart
D) Restartable Apps
Answer: D

---

40. Which shortcut opens the Action Center or Quick Settings in Windows 11?
A) Win + A
B) Win + N
C) Ctrl + Alt + A
D) Alt + Q
Answer: A

---

41. What’s the keyboard shortcut for renaming a selected file/folder?
A) F5
B) F2
C) Ctrl + R
D) Alt + R
Answer: B

---

42. The tool to configure advanced firewall settings is called:
A) Windows Defender
B) Windows Firewall Advanced
C) Windows Security
D) Windows Defender Firewall with Advanced Security
Answer: D

---

43. Which of the following can be personalized in Windows 11?
A) Taskbar color
B) Fonts
C) Themes
D) All of the above
Answer: D

---

44. The default storage location for user documents is:
A) Program Files
B) Downloads
C) Documents folder
D) System32
Answer: C

---

45. Windows 11 offers built-in support for:
A) Android and Linux apps
B) Only Windows apps
C) macOS apps
D) iOS apps
Answer: A

---

46. Which command opens the Windows Terminal?
A) winterm.exe
B) cmd
C) wt
D) terminal.msc
Answer: C

---

47. Where can you change your account picture?
A) Settings > Personalization
B) Settings > Accounts > Your Info
C) Control Panel > Users
D) Task Manager
Answer: B

---

48. Windows 11 supports multiple desktop environments using:
A) Alt + Tab
B) Task View
C) Cortana
D) Run Command
Answer: B

---

49. Which shortcut creates a new virtual desktop?
A) Win + Tab
B) Ctrl + Win + D
C) Ctrl + Alt + N
D) Win + Shift + N
Answer: B

---

50. To uninstall an app, you go to:
A) Programs and Features
B) Device Manager
C) Task Manager
D) Windows Terminal
Answer: A